Reply to "8.05 comment (b)"

jjk500+ posts

quote:
The comment seems to address a specific situation of R1 and doesn't mention stealing...that's what is confusing.

Since you put it that way I agree.

Though I've read this a few thousand times and know exactly how I and a couple million other umpires would rule on this...

Your right, as written, it seems to say:

If R1, then F1 would be allowed to, as long as he spun "towards" 1B, throw to an unoccupied 2B all day long..

But if he did and R1 wasn't going, trust me, he gets balked all day long.

GBman:
From what I understand about the rule is that a pitcher can throw to an unoccupied base at any time "as long" as he believes a play will be made at that base

No, only times when he AND the Umpire/s think there will be a play at that base.

5/22/0912:12 AM

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