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Had a question asked of me last night and it drew a lot of discussion without resolve.

BR1 on 2nd, BR2 on 1st with no outs. Pop up to first baseman, infield fly called as BR2's first move is off the base and touches the first baseman who makes the catch.

The defensive coach wanted BR2 called out for interference but as I read the rule on offensive interference, if there is no advantage gained the touching is ignored. I understand if BR1 advances to third than there is a possibility of the second out called for the interference.

Is that correct?

Jazz 

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Not sure there are 2 outs.

The runner is out if...

any runner or retired runner interferes (2-21-1, 2-30-3) in a way which obviously hinders an obvious double play;

And it is  an immediate dead ball if ...

e. there is interference by a runner, batter-runner (8-4-1g), or a retired runner (3-3-1n, 8-
4-1a, h or 8-4-2b, e, f, g or k), the batter (7-3-5), or by any person (3-2-3);

 

So... if the runner interfered with the fielder... it is an immediate dead ball... runner is out but batter/runner gets 1st base.

If there is no interference - IFF is called, batter is out - runners advance at own risk.

Sounds like a had to be there situation ... but I don't see 2 outs.

 

So... if the runner interfered with the fielder... it is an immediate dead ball... runner is out but batter/runner gets 1st base.

This is not exactly correct. For all practical purposes the ball is immediately dead. It only stays alive long enough to determine if it is a fair or foul ball so it can be determined to enforce the IFF or not. If fair, the batter is out on the IFF. If the umpire judges Interference, the runner who interfered would also be out. Evidently, the umpire judged that there was not interference.

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