How do you score the BATTER when he hits runner with ball ? Is it a fielders choice, hit or what ?
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quote:with ball ? Is it a fielders choice, hit or what ?
Basehit
Is it always a hit? I would think you would have to make some sort of judgement call as to what would have happened if the ball didn't hit the runner.
On such plays where a runner is struck by a batted ball and is ruled out per 7.09 (m), the batter is credited with a base hit. Scoring rule 10.05 (e) says, "A base hit shall be scored when a fair ball which has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire."
You learn something new everyday...thanks redbird
I think I've posted this before, but there were rumors that the hitters in front of Ted Williams back on the last day of the season ending double header in 1941 were told, "if you're at first and Ted hits a ground ball, let it hit you".
The thought was Williams, a dead pull hitter who routinely hit with shifts like David Ortiz, JD Drew and Carlos Pena routinely face today, would most likely roll over grounders if he made outs. Since the games meant nothing and Ted went in at something like .39955 and .400 was viewed as important, the Sox were willing to give up outs to make sure it happened.
Williams went 6-8, with no runners hit by baseballs and wound up with a .406 average that has stood for the past 69 years as the last hitter to bat .400.
The thought was Williams, a dead pull hitter who routinely hit with shifts like David Ortiz, JD Drew and Carlos Pena routinely face today, would most likely roll over grounders if he made outs. Since the games meant nothing and Ted went in at something like .39955 and .400 was viewed as important, the Sox were willing to give up outs to make sure it happened.
Williams went 6-8, with no runners hit by baseballs and wound up with a .406 average that has stood for the past 69 years as the last hitter to bat .400.
In regard to JMoff's Ted Williams' story, it should also be noted that in 1941 when Williams hit .406, rbi-producing sacrifice flies were counted as an at bat. It has been stated that if he had played under today's rules for rbi-producing sac flies, that he would have hit closer to .414.
Second, the batter hitting a runner with a ball is the final line in the question of how many hits is it possible to get in one inning without scoring a run. The answer is six. The first two batters get hits, putting runners on first and second. The third batter gets a hit, but the runner at second is thrown out at the plate. Runners hold at first and second. The fourth batter gets a hit and the runner on second is again thrown out at home, with runners stopping at first and second. The fifth hitter lines a sharp single and the runner on second is forced to stop at third. The sixth batter gets a hit and makes the third out when his batted ball hits a runner. No runs and six hits. The only part I don't know about this question is how many LOB's would there be in this situation.
Second, the batter hitting a runner with a ball is the final line in the question of how many hits is it possible to get in one inning without scoring a run. The answer is six. The first two batters get hits, putting runners on first and second. The third batter gets a hit, but the runner at second is thrown out at the plate. Runners hold at first and second. The fourth batter gets a hit and the runner on second is again thrown out at home, with runners stopping at first and second. The fifth hitter lines a sharp single and the runner on second is forced to stop at third. The sixth batter gets a hit and makes the third out when his batted ball hits a runner. No runs and six hits. The only part I don't know about this question is how many LOB's would there be in this situation.
I believe you'd score 3 LOB, the batter and the two runners not hit by the batted ball.
Back to the previous scenario:
5 hits, no runs in, 2 outs, bases loaded.
Batter hits one sharply through the hole into left.
Runner heads home, but misses home plate and doesn't realize it.
Defense appeals by tagging home plate (it was a force).
Now you've got 3 outs and the run doesn't score.
Question: Does the batter get credit for a base hit?
If so, that would be another way of getting 6 hits and scoring no runs.
Or does this situation somehow strangely morph into one of those weird fielder's choice scenarios, since they made a play on a preceding runner (in which case it wouldn't be the 6th hit).
JMoff -- what say you?
5 hits, no runs in, 2 outs, bases loaded.
Batter hits one sharply through the hole into left.
Runner heads home, but misses home plate and doesn't realize it.
Defense appeals by tagging home plate (it was a force).
Now you've got 3 outs and the run doesn't score.
Question: Does the batter get credit for a base hit?
If so, that would be another way of getting 6 hits and scoring no runs.
Or does this situation somehow strangely morph into one of those weird fielder's choice scenarios, since they made a play on a preceding runner (in which case it wouldn't be the 6th hit).
JMoff -- what say you?
Ok I know this is an old thread but I'm new and I love these kind of questions. My understanding of the rules would agree with your final statement. Here is the rule book.
10.06 A base hit shall not be scored in the following cases:
(b) When the batter apparently hits safely and a runner who is forced to advance by reason of the batter becoming a runner fails to touch the first base to which he is advancing and is called out on appeal. Charge the batter with a time at bat but no hit;
That would suck, but it appears the batter gets nothing for his hit except to kick the players butt that kept him from getting an RBI single.
10.06 A base hit shall not be scored in the following cases:
(b) When the batter apparently hits safely and a runner who is forced to advance by reason of the batter becoming a runner fails to touch the first base to which he is advancing and is called out on appeal. Charge the batter with a time at bat but no hit;
That would suck, but it appears the batter gets nothing for his hit except to kick the players butt that kept him from getting an RBI single.
quote:Second, the batter hitting a runner with a ball is the final line in the question of how many hits is it possible to get in one inning without scoring a run. The answer is six. The first two batters get hits, putting runners on first and second. The third batter gets a hit, but the runner at second is thrown out at the plate. Runners hold at first and second. The fourth batter gets a hit and the runner on second is again thrown out at home, with runners stopping at first and second. The fifth hitter lines a sharp single and the runner on second is forced to stop at third. The sixth batter gets a hit and makes the third out when his batted ball hits a runner. No runs and six hits. The only part I don't know about this question is how many LOB's would there be in this situation.
I'm just glad the 3rd base coach finally started holding up runners on those OF arms.
RPD - Missed your question from back in November.
I believe the batter would be credited with a fielder's choice as the result of the play being a force.
I believe the batter would be credited with a fielder's choice as the result of the play being a force.
JMoff -- good to hear from you! And OK Heat, looks like you nailed it. Thanks to both.
Good to see this forum starting back up. Our first real game is Thursday, so it's time to put my thinking cap back on!
quote:Originally posted by Just Watching:
The first two batters get hits, putting runners on first and second. The third batter gets a hit, but the runner at second is thrown out at the plate. Runners hold at first and second. The fourth batter gets a hit and the runner on second is again thrown out at home, with runners stopping at first and second. The fifth hitter lines a sharp single and the runner on second is forced to stop at third. The sixth batter gets a hit and makes the third out when his batted ball hits a runner. No runs and six hits. .
Please help me understand this scenario. Why are the two runners thrown out at the plate, not FCs?
Is it ALWAYS a FC when the lead runner is thrown out or are there other considerations?
One of you guys wrote that "baseball is a game enjoyed my many, but understood by few"...dang. You might be right about that!
OBR 2.00
FIELDER’S CHOICE is the act of a fielder who handles a fair grounder and,
instead of throwing to first base to put out the batter-runner, throws to another base in an attempt to put out a preceding runner.
Hope that clears it up.
FIELDER’S CHOICE is the act of a fielder who handles a fair grounder and,
instead of throwing to first base to put out the batter-runner, throws to another base in an attempt to put out a preceding runner.
Hope that clears it up.
Yes it does RPD...I always thought a FC was scored anytime a play was made on a preceding runner instead of a reasonable play on the Batter Runner. I didn't know that FC was limited only to Ground Balls.
I don't think it is (I always get in trouble with this one).
For example, R1 & R3 less than two outs. Fly ball hit to the OF, who uncorks a high throw home. R3 holds, but R1 goes to second. I would score a "fielder's choice" in allowing R1 to go to second.
No error, just a "choice" of throwing home versus throwing to second to hold the runner.
Some people draw a line and say "advanced on the throw", which is OK too but technically they advanced on a fielder's choice.
For example, R1 & R3 less than two outs. Fly ball hit to the OF, who uncorks a high throw home. R3 holds, but R1 goes to second. I would score a "fielder's choice" in allowing R1 to go to second.
No error, just a "choice" of throwing home versus throwing to second to hold the runner.
Some people draw a line and say "advanced on the throw", which is OK too but technically they advanced on a fielder's choice.