Explain the reasoning behind this rule...

I believe an umpire is considered "part of the field", i.e., no different than if the ball hit a base and caromed off it. Except that he can move out of the way.

Baserunners have an offensive incentive to try and hide the infielders view of the ball by using his body as a screen, thus if he's hit by the ball he's out.

Well, I'll take a stab at it.....

An umpire always tries to avoid being hit, and he furthermore is typically postioned so that he isn't obscuring an infielder's view of the ball. So if the umpire does get hit by the ball, it probably was hit very hard and not in the direction of an infielder. Most of the time, if the umpire could have avoided the ball, it would have gone for a base hit. So for consistency the batter is given a base hit whenever an umpire is struck by a batted ball, before it has passed by or struck an infielder other than the pitcher. (If the ball has already passed an infielder, then the umpire becomes "part of the field".)

Conversely, a base runner would--if permitted by the rules--allow himself to be hit, especially on softly hit, easily fielded balls. However, by rule only the runner is called out, unless the runner "willfully and deliberately interferes with a batted ball" in an attempt to break up a double play.

To answer your question LHPMom...taken from MLB rulebook:

5.09 The ball becomes dead and runners advance one base, or return to their bases, without liability to be put out, when-

(f) A fair ball touches a runner or an umpire on fair territory before it touches an infielder including the pitcher, or touches an umpire before it has passed an infielder other than the pitcher; If a fair ball touches an umpire working in the infield after it has bounded past, or over, the pitcher, it is a dead ball. If a batted ball is deflected by a fielder in fair territory and hits a runner or an umpire while still in flight and then caught by an infielder it shall not be a catch, but the ball shall remain in play. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches a runner after being deflected by an infielder, the ball is in play and the umpire shall not declare the runner out. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the infielder and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball; runners advance if forced

So it seems it depends on the situation...

There are only 2 instances of umpire interference...one is being hit by a fair batted ball...(prior to it passing an infielder) and interfering with the catchers throw.....both result in a dead ball...

if an umpire is struck with a thrown ball the umpire is condsidered part of the field....and play on...

When struck by a batted ball it is determined that the umpire's action deprived the batter of the results of his fair batted ball... the remedy is to award the batter a hit, no runners advance unless forced by the award...


Being struck with a batted ball is a source of embarassment for any umpire. As 3FG stated, we place ourselves in an area to be away from the fielders and give us the vision of the play and the ball...there are 2 times where the chance of an umpire being hit with a batted ball are magnified....on the small diamond the umpire can be quite close and on the big diamond doing big boy ball....the ball off the aluminum bat gets there very quick.....I have dodged plenty of liners in my day....

Now that being said, those Umpires who do not know this rule need some remedial training, as this is a basic fundmental rule.....

as to changing the rule......its not likely...game fundamental rule changes are rarely seen...

Thanks for the responses, gents.

The ump who got hit didn't seem embarrassed at all!

Our first game at WWBA U15; my son had a no-hitter going into the 5th -- he walked a guy, and then got this perfect double play ball headed to the second baseman... a bouncing grounder not going fast at all... and the umpire took it on the leg. Now we've got two guys on, no one out, and the first hit of the game for the other team... wheels started to come off the cart after that...

The ump made the correct call; it just doesn't seem right to award a base and a hit due to umpire interference.

But then again, baseball is a game that strives hard to be fair, but often isn't.

LHP Mom and philosopher

quote:

Originally posted by piaa_ump:
and interfering with the catchers throw.....both result in a dead ball...

This just happened Sunday in the Phillies game. When the catcher attempted his throw on a steal of 2nd base, his throwing arm brushed the umpire and he dropped the ball.

The Home Plate umpire immediately called dead ball, admitted he interfered with the catcher and sent the runner back to first. Between he went to the Phillies bench to apologize to the runner (Victorino, I think).

I've never seen that play before.

I learned in the Summer 2009 issue of the Baseball Hall of Fame's publication, "Memories and Dreams" that Paul Dickson just came out with the third edition of "The Dickson Baseball Dictionary" that documents all the great baseball-specific lingo.

For example, a "jimjam" is a 19th-century term for a wild pitch.

Here's Dickson's definition for "Jesse James."

"An umpire. 1. It is a players' term because the umpire "robs" from them. Before there were three umpires for each game, it was common to refer to the two umps as "Jesse and Frank" or the James Brothers." (also a Jesse James single is a base hit that is allowed when a batted ball strikes an umpire).