I know this is a strange question, but to tell the truth I’ve never had to score it before and I can’t find anything on it in the rules. Here’s the situation. Runner on 1st, 2 outs, count 1-2. Batter takes off for 2nd and apparently reaches it safely, but PU calls batter out for interfering with the catcher. Does the pitch count, and what does it count as?
Common sense tells me it had to be either a ball or a strike before the interference was called and it should be counted as such.
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I know this is a strange question, but to tell the truth I’ve never had to score it before and I can’t find anything on it in the rules. Here’s the situation. Runner on 1st, 2 outs, count 1-2. Batter takes off for 2nd and apparently reaches it safely, but PU calls batter out for interfering with the catcher. Does the pitch count, and what does it count as?
Common sense tells me it had to be either a ball or a strike before the interference was called and it should be counted as such.
I would say no pitch, because if it was a strike, he'd be out. I think it probably is a no pitch situation.
Kinda guessing on this, but...
Ryno -- you're right, if a strike was called the batter is out, so any interference would be a a "4th out" situation.
But if a ball was called, the count is 2-2 and then the batter could have interfered and be called out for it. Seems to me that is what has to have happened.
I think this is actually an umpiring question not a scorekeeping question.
Originally Posted by rynoattack:
I would say no pitch, because if it was a strike, he'd be out. I think it probably is a no pitch situation.
Why do you think it had to be a strike if it was a pitch? The batter checked his swing and kept his hands and arms extended enough to contact the catcher when he stepped forward to throw.
The reason I’m trying to make sure is I have to add that situation to my scoring program. Since it automatically counts pitches, if it counts as a play, there has to be a pitch. I could make it before the play, such as a CS, but since the batter’s out and the next batter is next, it seems to me there has to be a play.
Originally Posted by rynoattack:
I would say no pitch, because if it was a strike, he'd be out. I think it probably is a no pitch situation.
Why do you think it had to be a strike if it was a pitch? The batter checked his swing and kept his hands and arms extended enough to contact the catcher when he stepped forward to throw.
The reason I’m trying to make sure is I have to add that situation to my scoring program. Since it automatically counts pitches, if it counts as a play, there has to be a pitch. I could make it before the play, such as a CS, but since the batter’s out and the next batter is next, it seems to me there has to be a play.
I don't believe there has to be a pitch, because there were 2 outs. Another batter won't come to the plate. If interference is called, the inning is over. I am not sure, but I would say no pitch. I am no scoring guru for sure. I just gave my thoughts.
Just guessing here, but I would say there was a pitch and it must have been a ball. From your description, it sounds like the pitcher threw a pitch that crossed that plate - catcher then attempted to throw out a stealing baserunner. No idea why there would be no pitch - in other words I do not understand how getting the ball from the pitcher to the catcher cannot be deemed a pitch assuming the pitcher was on the rubber and executed a pitch. Have to assume there was no balk or baserunner would proceed to second. Next, if the pitch were a strike, inning over dead ball and the advancing runner is of no consequence. Using this logic, the pitch was deemed a ball followed by the obstruction call.
I would say 2017LHP is correct.....if the pitch is a strike, the batter is out....and the obstruction call means nothing. For the runner to reach safely, the pitch had to be a ball, then the interference call made on the batter. Either way, the batter is out...other than a pitch count, I'm not sure why anyone would care what the call was
Nothing in this scenario challenges the legality of the pitch.
Whether the pitch is a ball or a strike, the pitch counts and the batter is out. The only difference is when and why he is out.
If the pitch was a ball: The pitch is recorded as a ball. Interference by the batter with two outs is an immediate dead ball. The batter is out. The runner does not get to keep second base and is left on base at first.
If the pitch was a strike: The inning is over on the strike out. There is no interference because the inning ended the moment the catcher caught the pitch. The runner does not get to keep second base and is left on base at first. (It is not a fourth out situation because there is no baserunning error, no potential for a run to score, and no choice for the defense to make.)
Originally Posted by Buckeye 2015:
I would say 2017LHP is correct.....if the pitch is a strike, the batter is out....and the obstruction call means nothing. For the runner to reach safely, the pitch had to be a ball, then the interference call made on the batter. Either way, the batter is out...other than a pitch count, I'm not sure why anyone would care what the call was
The only reason I care is because I try like Hell to keep accurate records. If the records aren’t accurate, why bother to keep them? 
If someone has GameChanger or IScore, check to see how they handle it. I’m just curious. Thanx.
If it is a ball it is batter's interference. If it is a strike, it is a strike out and voids the batter interference call, no matter what the umpire states. If its a strike the umpire could have forgotten about the outs or have been over zealous. I have an umpire SOOOOO emphatically bang a guy at first because he thought he was going to be part of a triple play and forgot that there was already 1 out when it went 5U-4.
One of the problems with amateur ball is, the umpires seldom go to the scorer and explain plays. What’s common is, they tell the coaches and expect them to tell the scorers. That would be great if every team kept a book in the dugout, but my guess is it’s much more often kept by someone in the stands.
One of the problems with amateur ball is, the umpires seldom go to the scorer and explain plays. What’s common is, they tell the coaches and expect them to tell the scorers. That would be great if every team kept a book in the dugout, but my guess is it’s much more often kept by someone in the stands.
You are right about this. Our team has one in the booth, and one in the dugout, but the information from the umpire is not usually sent up to the booth.
Originally Posted by rynoattack:
You are right about this. Our team has one in the booth, and one in the dugout, but the information from the umpire is not usually sent up to the booth.
When I read your post it reminded me of the team we played yesterday afternoon. It was a HSV game, and the visiting team had a coach with a tablet using GameScore, 2 team mangers in the dugout scoring on Glover’s books, and a parent in the stands using some other kind of book. It’s been a loooong time since I saw 4 people scoring one game for the same team.
A short story.
We have a mom who uses Gamescore to score our games so people can follow the game on their phones, while I’m using my computer, keeping the team’s “official” book. Problem is, I get phone calls and e-mails questioning the stats because mine don’t match what she had for the game, then I’m in the position of explaining why something got marked the way it did.
