RBI question

coach270910,000+ posts

I'm actually embarassed that I don't know this for certain but last night in our game two runners scored on two consecutive wild pitches. One of our coaches said the batter gets an RBI on each one. I said he didn't because he didn't earn anything. I said the batter somehow has to do something to force the runner(s) in. But I didn't know any rule reference to back myself up. By the way we are talking high school level.

Would it make a difference if it was passed balls? I'm thinking it doesn't because the batter has to do more than back out of the box and wave the runners in to earn an RBI.

Plus - it's Run BATTED In so the ball has to be put in play (with the exception of a bases loaded free pass) with the bat.

4/22/0912:25 PM

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jfsbndr10+ posts

Rule 10.04 - A run batted in is a statistic credited to a batter whose action at bat causes one or more runs to score.

In your case you are correct. The batter does not get credit for an RBI(s).

Also, the pitcher is charged with two earned runs for those runners that scored as a result of the wild pitches. (Rule 10.16 (a)

Passed balls are different. They are unearned runs, Rule 10.16 (d)but they also would not be counted as RBI's for the batter.

4/22/0912:59 PM

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