1st base occupied

Rick MMember

Runner on first - one out. As F1 pitches the runner on first breaks for second base on a steal. F1 blows a fastball by the batter for strike three but F2 drops the pitch. The batter runs towards first before he can be tagged by F2. Is the batter automatically out because 1st base is occupied w/less than 2 outs or does the runner on first stealing constitute that the bag is no longer occupied and the batter can try to reach first?

Thanks for the ruling...

6/3/087:45 PM

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piaa_ump5,000+ posts

Rick,

In the situation you describe, the batter is out as first base was occupied at the "time of the pitch" ....

The time of the pitch is determined by the first movement by a pitcher..........

6/3/089:12 PM

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