2 part question this time

quote:

Originally posted by mrtarheel:
In today's game, their first baseman, while holding the runner on, had both of his feet in foul territory. I thought he had to be in fair territory. Who is correct

Secondly, he would drop a knee to block first base from our runner when the pitcher throw over...ump said OK but I thought it was obstruction. Who is right?

How does he drop a knee and block the base when both feet are on foul ground?

At least one foot is supposed to be touching fair ground. Calling an illegal pitch/balk for that is picking boogers.

Denying access to the base without possession of the ball is obstruction. If he has the ball, he can block the base. If he doesn't, he can't.

You are just having all kinds of fun.
The first baseman must be in fair territory but as long as he has one foot in fair he is good. Touching the line is considered being fair, so I think your umpire may have been right on this one.
You are correct that the F3 can't block the base without the ball. I commend you for knowing it is obstruction, not interference.
Until last year, if the throw made him knell down then he was OK. Now, he has to have the ball before he can block the base.

After talking to my runners, they told he that the big, tall first baseman intimidated them as they returned to the bag even if he did not try to block the base. Does not the fact that he is straddling the bag obstruction in and of it's self even without trying to block the bag?

Also, if he drops a knee and my runner comes in foot first cheating him, who takes the blame?

What does intimidating mean?

quote:

Originally posted by mrtarheel:
After talking to my runners, they told he that the big, tall first baseman intimidated them as they returned to the bag even if he did not try to block the base.

What level is this that a big bad first baseman scares runners?

quote:

Does not the fact that he is straddling the bag obstruction in and of it's self even without trying to block the bag?

No. First, how could anyone call obstruction without someone being obstructed? By definition this is just silly.

Secondly, straddling the bag is not obstruction. The runner has to have access to a portion of the bag, not every inch of it.

quote:

Also, if he drops a knee and my runner comes in foot first cheating him, who takes the blame?

Cheating?

quote:

Originally posted by TRhit:
What does intimidating mean?

I agree with TR you can only be intimidated if you let someone intimidate you.

If the guy is consistently blocking the bag without the ball I would talk to the coach and have him discuss it with the umpire.