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I disagree. If you score it a FC, that would lower his batting average because FC counts as an at bat, therefore he is now 0-1 on a play that I am assuming was an obvious sac bunt situation. A sac bunt does not lower your batting average, therefore had the pitcher made the play at first, he would have been 0-0 on the day. I would record it as a sac bunt with a FC to denote that both players reached safely. And, to really argue the point, his "sac bunt" was successful because he moved the runner to 2nd base. But that is my interpretation...nothing official.
I can go with that, if he was bunting for a sac. If he was bunting for a hit, it would be a fielders choice. If he hit a ball deep in the hole to short with no way they were getting him out at first, but short went to second for the force, it is still a fielders choice and not a hit.

I was thinking more along those lines rather than a sac bunt.
Great question ... actually more suited to the "Scorekeeping" section. But that being said, rather than guessing or going by feel, let's go to the rulebook (OBR).

10.08 (b) "Score a sacrifice bunt when, before two are out, the fielders handle a bunted ball without error in an unsuccessful attempt to put out a preceding runner advancing one base ..."

That's exactly what happened here, so it looks like it should be scored as a sacrifice. But then the rule goes on:

"...unless ...in the judgment of the official scorer ordinary effort would not have put out the batter at first base, in which case the batter shall be credited with a one-base hit and not a sacrifice;"

So that's it -- sac or a single ...scorekeepers judgment.

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