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1-2 count. 0 out. Runners on 1st(R1) and 3rd(R3). Pitcher delivers the ball to the plate legally, but the pitch is in the dirt and is taken by the batter. The catcher jumps up and starts looking around for the ball. Upon seeing this R3 breaks for home. The catcher finds the ball behind his chest protector and quickly pulls it out and tags R3. What is the call?
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"The pro rule is different. The ball must remain out of play for it to be ruled dead. Under pro rules, R3 is out, ball is live."

How long should an umpire wait before he realizes it's a lodged ball situation? If an umpire under pro rules ruled dead ball in this situation (before the ball dropped from behind the cather's proptector), then I believe he rules that no outs can be gained in this situation and he places the runners (and batter in this instance) in accordance with his sense of fair play.
quote:
Originally posted by cookie:
"The pro rule is different. The ball must remain out of play for it to be ruled dead. Under pro rules, R3 is out, ball is live."

How long should an umpire wait before he realizes it's a lodged ball situation? If an umpire under pro rules ruled dead ball in this situation (before the ball dropped from behind the cather's proptector), then I believe he rules that no outs can be gained in this situation and he places the runners (and batter in this instance) in accordance with his sense of fair play.


Edited: Lodged ball in this situation means lodged in clothing or in gear..
quote:
Originally posted by cookie:

How long should an umpire wait before he realizes it's a lodged ball situation? If an umpire under pro rules ruled dead ball in this situation (before the ball dropped from behind the cather's proptector), then I believe he rules that no outs can be gained in this situation and he places the runners (and batter in this instance) in accordance with his sense of fair play.

Edited: Lodged ball in this situation means lodged in clothing or in gear..


Under pro rules, I'd give F2 a chance to dislodge the ball and make a play on R3. After R3 scored, I'd kill the play (if the ball were still lodged). I can't see allowing other runners (R1 in this case) to achieve more bases than they would under the award for a lodged ball.

If the PU had ruled dead ball before the ball dropped out, R3 would score and R1 would be awarded 2nd base. The batter would still be up with a 2-2 count.
quote:
...then I believe he rules that no outs can be gained in this situation and he places the runners (and batter in this instance) in accordance with his sense of fair play.


I have this wrong. I believe this applies to a batted ball (or a thrown ball) that lodges in a runner's clothing (where no interference applies), not the situation presented here in the original post. I'm trying to find out among all my notes where I got this ruling from.

As for "If the PU had ruled dead ball before the ball dropped out, R3 would score and R1 would be awarded 2nd base. The batter would still be up with a 2-2 count.", Dash Riprock is right according to pro rules.
I know this is beating a dead horse over a rule that comes into play rarely but I am still confused. I was thinking it was a dead ball with one base awards for a ball that becomes lodged after being pitched or thrown from contact with the rubber (e.g. pickoff). Or is it as dash says and can also apply for any thrown ball?

What is the ruling if it's a lodged ball that is a batted ball? Umpire's judgement? Also a dead ball?

Any clarification would be appreciated.
OK, if you insist, I'll type.

8.3.3....Each runner is awarded:

c. Two bases if a fair batted or thrown ball becomes dead because of bouncing over or passing through a fence, or lodges in a defensive player's or umpire's equipment or uniform...

d. One base if a pitch or any throw by the pitcher from his pitching position on his plate goes into a stand or bench or over or through or lodges in a fence or backstop or touches a spectator or lodges in an umpire's or catcher's equipment...

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