It's my understanding that interference occurs when a runner deliberately hinders the fielder from making a play. If this is the case, wasn't Matt Holliday's slide into Starlin Castro the very definition of interference? Tim McCarver tried to make it seem like Holliday was not interfering because he was "still able to reach out and touch second." But the baseline isn't even a factor in this situation, is it? A player could slide directly over the bag and still be called for interference as long as he was DELIBERATELY trying to hinder the fielder.
Am I wrong on this? If not, how the heck did the umpire miss this call?
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