Early break at 1B

redbird510,000+ posts

This scenario came up last weekend at an AAU tourney played under Fed Rules:

Runner at 1B
RH pitcher

Runner breaks early to steal 2B...Pitcher performs an "inside" move to 2B (as if he was picking a runner off 2B)..Runner is tagged out.

The umpire ruled it was not a balk because he threw to 2B. Had he not, it would have then been a balk. Understanding what I was dealing with, I chose not to argue. It makes you shake your head. For future reference, where can I find the proper ruling?

4/16/073:59 PM

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pilsner500+ posts

redbird5,

As long as the pitcher turned in a continuous motion and stepped toward second base there would be no balk whether he threw the ball or not.
The pitcher is always allowed to feint to second or third base provided he is doing so when the base is occupied or a runner is attempting to advance there.

See NFHS Rule 6-2 Infractions by Pitcher
Art. 4 ...Balks

4/16/075:07 PM

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redbird510,000+ posts

He stepped to 3B...he did not clear the rubber

Sorry that I did not clarify that.

4/16/075:24 PM

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Michael S. Taylor1,000+ posts

OK you are going to have to re-explain the sitch. It sounds like the whole was to second which was legal then you bring up third. We can't answer with the confusion.

4/16/076:50 PM

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LonBlue67100+ posts

he stepped to Third and threw to Second?

4/17/077:10 AM

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piaa_ump5,000+ posts

yup...need to see that question restated with that vital part of info included......can advise better thoughts then........

4/17/079:45 AM

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ironhorse5,000+ posts

I'm guessing it was a 1st and 3rd sit. Pitcher was going with a 3rd to 1st move, as his foot came down towards third he heard "runner!" and threw to second.

(even if I'm wrong in my assumption, please answer it anyway...

)

Assuming he disengaged the rubber, as I believe it is assumed with the normal 3rd to 1st move, then the throw to 2nd would be legal, correct??

If he didn't disengage, balk??

4/17/0710:03 AM

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redbird510,000+ posts

quote:
Originally posted by Michael S. Taylor:
OK you are going to have to re-explain the sitch. It sounds like the whole was to second which was legal then you bring up third. We can't answer with the confusion.

Sorry...the original post was typed in a rush.

The P did not spin to 2B until after his front foot had hit the ground in the direction of 3B. He did not land on the 2B side of the rubber.

The only runner on base was at 1B...stealing 2B. No runner on 3B.

4/17/0710:19 AM

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Michael S. Taylor1,000+ posts

So you are saying he spun clockwise toward third, touched on the third side and then threw to second. If I have all that correct then it's a balk for stepping to the wrong base plus an unoccupied base.
If there had been a R3 and in his step disengaged the rubber then the throw to second would have been OK. Thanks for the repost.

4/17/0710:41 AM

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Coach WingisMember

If the runner did leave the base early, then you are attempting to put out a runner. In that case you can fake to an unoccupied base or throw to an unoccupied base as long as your step is directly at the base; and it is not a fake to first. However, stepping to third when the runner is going from first to second would not apply here, and should be a balk.

4/18/0710:27 AM

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Coach WingisMember

If the pitcher really had made an inside move as was originally posted, this would not be a balk; had the runner left early; because the pitcher is making an attempt to put out a runner and stepped directly towards second.

4/18/0710:31 AM

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