This was a controversy which came up last year and I thought I'd bring it "to the experts".
If a runner advances on an error, and then scores....but would NOT have scored from the original base.........is this an unearned run?
Example:
Baserunner on 1st reaches 3rd base on an outfielders error. Next batter bunts and run scores. BUT runner would not have scored from 1st on the bunt. So is he an Earned or Unearned run?
I believe it's open to scorekeepers discretion but whaddaya think??
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"People ask me what I do in winter when there's no baseball. I'll tell you what I do. I stare out the window and wait for spring." Rogers Hornsby, Hall of Famer
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