R1 on 1st base goes to 2nd base on the hit which is a shallow fly ball to center field. The ball is caught and in R1's attempt to return to 1st base he stumbles and falls and is tagged. Is he out or does the tag have to be made on the 1st base bag?
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He is out
Similar scenario. One out. Runners on 1st and 3rd. Fly ball caught. R3 tags and touches home plate. R1 is tagged out after R3 touches home. Does run count?
Similar scenario. One out. Runners on 1st and 3rd. Fly ball caught. R3 tags and touches home plate. R1 is tagged out after R3 touches home. Does run count?
Yes.
And it doesn't even matter whether R1 was doubled off first or tagged out trying to advance after he tags up.
It's a timing play either way.
The run counts.
That's what I thought but it is a situation that for some reason, it has always stuck in my mind that a "doubled-up" play is like a force play but it really isn't that at all. Thanks
R1 on 1st base goes to 2nd base on the hit which is a shallow fly ball to center field. The ball is caught and in R1's attempt to return to 1st base he stumbles and falls and is tagged. Is he out or does the tag have to be made on the 1st base bag?
It's my understanding that it doesn't matter what just happened....if the runner is off ANY bag, (providing there is a live ball), and he is tagged, then he is out. Any exception anyone can think of?
That's what I thought but it is a situation that for some reason, it has always stuck in my mind that a "doubled-up" play is like a force play but it really isn't that at all. Thanks
It's not a force play unless the runner has to vacate his base because the batter-runner needs to occupy first. Once the fly ball is caught, it's not a force.
R1 on 1st base goes to 2nd base on the hit which is a shallow fly ball to center field. The ball is caught and in R1's attempt to return to 1st base he stumbles and falls and is tagged. Is he out or does the tag have to be made on the 1st base bag?
It's my understanding that it doesn't matter what just happened....if the runner is off ANY bag, (providing there is a live ball), and he is tagged, then he is out. Any exception anyone can think of?
R1 on 1st base goes to 2nd base on the hit which is a shallow fly ball to center field. The ball is caught and in R1's attempt to return to 1st base he stumbles and falls and is tagged. Is he out or does the tag have to be made on the 1st base bag?
It's my understanding that it doesn't matter what just happened....if the runner is off ANY bag, (providing there is a live ball), and he is tagged, then he is out. Any exception anyone can think of?
Good one POLOGREEN!
R1 on 1st base goes to 2nd base on the hit which is a shallow fly ball to center field. The ball is caught and in R1's attempt to return to 1st base he stumbles and falls and is tagged. Is he out or does the tag have to be made on the 1st base bag?
It's my understanding that it doesn't matter what just happened....if the runner is off ANY bag, (providing there is a live ball), and he is tagged, then he is out. Any exception anyone can think of?
One situation comes to mind... obstruction. It is a delayed call that lets the play develop. If the runner is tagged after obstruction, but before advancing to the next base safely, then he would be safe.
Similar scenario. One out. Runners on 1st and 3rd. Fly ball caught. R3 tags and touches home plate. R1 is tagged out after R3 touches home. Does run count?
Yes.
And it doesn't even matter whether R1 was doubled off first or tagged out trying to advance after he tags up.
It's a timing play either way.
The run counts.
In a pro game yesterday, men on first and third, one out. Deep fly ball, runner at third tags and crosses the plate, runner at first had crossed second, then returned to first untagged but neglected to retouch second. On the appeal play, the run was taken off the board and the runner at first was ruled out - end of inning.
In a pro game yesterday, men on first and third, one out. Deep fly ball, runner at third tags and crosses the plate, runner at first had crossed second, then returned to first untagged but neglected to retouch second. On the appeal play, the run was taken off the board and the runner at first was ruled out - end of inning.
Something is wrong with that. As described, the run should count.
(On review, I see that you did not describe the timing of the runner reaching home and the appeal at second. I'm assuming the runner touched home first.)
In a pro game yesterday, men on first and third, one out. Deep fly ball, runner at third tags and crosses the plate, runner at first had crossed second, then returned to first untagged but neglected to retouch second. On the appeal play, the run was taken off the board and the runner at first was ruled out - end of inning.
Something is wrong with that. As described, the run should count.
(On review, I see that you did not describe the timing of the runner reaching home and the appeal at second. I'm assuming the runner touched home first.)
When the runner returned to first, his initial touch of second was nullified. Thus any subsequent play on that runner or appeal would be considered a force. The time the runner crossed the plate is not of consideration on a force play that ends the inning, thus the run is removed. Right call.
Beloit v. Kane County; top ten. Unfortunately described as an unassisted double play by the left fielder in the recap. I think the distinguishing feature was the failure to retag second. Too bad the run didn't score - it may have been the difference in the game.
Thanks.
The unassisted double play by the left fielder is interesting.
I saw an unassisted double play by a center fielder in a men's league one time. R2 was running. Short fly ball. Both middle infielders went out. Center fielder charging in called both of them off, caught the ball below his knees at full stride, kept running and doubled up R2 on his way to the dugout.
If the left fielder made a similar catch coming in, saw R1 touch but not re-touch second base, sprinted for second base and touched it before R3 touched the plate, it would be an unassisted double play--and the run would not count.
But it has nothing to do with a force play. It's a timing play all the way.
Thus any subsequent play on that runner or appeal would be considered a force.
Not correct.
If the ball had been dropped, then an out at second would be a force out and the force would be "reinstated" when the runner returned toward first.
When the runner returned to first, his initial touch of second was nullified. Thus any subsequent play on that runner or appeal would be considered a force. The time the runner crossed the plate is not of consideration on a force play that ends the inning, thus the run is removed. Right call.
That is wrong. Once the batter is retired there can be no force possible.
I don't know who was right, but there was no argument from the manager. And the game was on tv and the outfielder wasn't involved with the play besides catching the ball (Despite what the recap showed.) The runner on third was sitting in the dugout (having scored), the run was actually on the scoreboard, when the runner from first was ruled out and the run taken from the board.
