Is this a balk?

quote:

Originally posted by mrtarheel:
Runners at 1st and 2nd, 2 out. Our 1st baseman is not holding the runner on. A pick off at second is called. The So pitcher instead threw to 1st. Ball sailed into right field. Our 1st baseman got the ball and threw to the Catcher who tagged out the runner from 2nd who was trying to score.

Is this not a bald? Our coach said no because our 1st baseman was with in 25 ft of 1st. What is the correct call

If the pitcher threw (legally) directly to the base, it was not a balk no matter where the fielders were. The coach obviously does not know the rule. What a surprise.

There's one I haven't heard, that'd be a tough one huh; nope coach definetly 26'..

So how was the throw?

Was it to the bag or to the fielder who was within the magic ring?

Would it matter? Being the ball was thrown away and (presumably) every runner advanced a base, the balk would have been nullified anyway.

Nope. Everyone has to advance at least one base, including the batter, to ignore the balk.

In high school, however, the ball is dead on the balk, so no one advances on the bad throw.

quote:

Originally posted by Jimmy03:
Nope. Everyone has to advance at least one base, including the batter, to ignore the balk.

In OBR, not on a pick-off:
8.05 A.R.: In cases where a pitcher balks and throws wild, either to a base or to home plate, a runner or runners may advance beyond the base to which he is entitled at his own risk.

Situation (OBR rules): R1. Pitcher doesn't gain distance or direction to 1B when attempting a pick-off, but throws the ball over F3's head. R1 advances to 3B on the overthrow. Ruling: R1 remains at 3B.

For that reason, I'm "protecting" runners to their advance base. Any attempt after that is on them. So, in OP, the out stands... IN OBR RULES!!!

You're right, though, in that Fed rules would make a balk immediately dead.

quote:

Originally posted by yawetag:

quote:

Originally posted by Jimmy03:
Nope. Everyone has to advance at least one base, including the batter, to ignore the balk.

In OBR, not on a pick-off:
8.05 A.R.: In cases where a pitcher balks and throws wild, either to a base or to home plate, a runner or runners may advance beyond the base to which he is entitled at his own risk.

Situation (OBR rules): R1. Pitcher doesn't gain distance or direction to 1B when attempting a pick-off, but throws the ball over F3's head. R1 advances to 3B on the overthrow. Ruling: R1 remains at 3B.

For that reason, I'm "protecting" runners to their advance base. Any attempt after that is on them. So, in OP, the out stands... IN OBR RULES!!!

It is still a balk.

quote:

Originally posted by dash_riprock:
It is still a balk.

Are you saying my interpretation is incorrect?

quote:

Originally posted by dash_riprock:

quote:

Originally posted by yawetag:

quote:

Originally posted by Jimmy03:
Nope. Everyone has to advance at least one base, including the batter, to ignore the balk.

In OBR, not on a pick-off:
8.05 A.R.: In cases where a pitcher balks and throws wild, either to a base or to home plate, a runner or runners may advance beyond the base to which he is entitled at his own risk.

Situation (OBR rules): R1. Pitcher doesn't gain distance or direction to 1B when attempting a pick-off, but throws the ball over F3's head. R1 advances to 3B on the overthrow. Ruling: R1 remains at 3B.

For that reason, I'm "protecting" runners to their advance base. Any attempt after that is on them. So, in OP, the out stands... IN OBR RULES!!!

It is still a balk.

Exactly.

quote:

Originally posted by yawetag:

Are you saying my interpretation is incorrect?

Runners can advance on a wild pickoff throw, but the balk is not nullified.

Take this situation:

R1, R2 one out. F1 balks for not stepping directly to 1st base and throws wild to 1st, but the ball doesn't get very far away. F3 retrieves the ball and throws to F6 in an attempt to retire R1 but the throw sails into center field. F8 throws out R2 at the plate and F2 throws out R1 at 3rd.

What's the call?

quote:

Originally posted by dash_riprock:
R1, R2 one out. F1 balks for not stepping directly to 1st base and throws wild to 1st, but the ball doesn't get very far away. F3 retrieves the ball and throws to F6 in an attempt to retire R1 but the throw sails into center field. F8 throws out R2 at the plate and F2 throws out R1 at 3rd.

What's the call?

Apples and oranges. This is a balk. Once the play was made on him at 2B, the play's over and runners get one base.

In mine, their advance bases were made off the pitcher's wild throw, not from an intervening wild throw by another infielder. Once my runners reach their next base, the balk is ignored. If they're then thrown out at another advance base (or even returning to their first advance base), they're not protected.

quote:

Originally posted by yawetag:

quote:

Originally posted by dash_riprock:
R1, R2 one out. F1 balks for not stepping directly to 1st base and throws wild to 1st, but the ball doesn't get very far away. F3 retrieves the ball and throws to F6 in an attempt to retire R1 but the throw sails into center field. F8 throws out R2 at the plate and F2 throws out R1 at 3rd.

What's the call?

Apples and oranges. This is a balk. Once the play was made on him at 2B, the play's over and runners get one base.

In mine, their advance bases were made off the pitcher's wild throw, not from an intervening wild throw by another infielder. Once my runners reach their next base, the balk is ignored. If they're then thrown out at another advance base (or even returning to their first advance base), they're not protected.

It's not apples and oranges. You obviously know how to correctly apply the rule, but it's still a balk (both situations).

Yes the kid did throw to the base and not to the 1st baseman...so if I am reading this correctly, it is a balk, the ball is dead and the runners move up one base?

I know it may be hard to believe, but the so pitcher did it a second time but the 1st baseman mover toward the bad and the pitcher kind of threw a little toward his so he could catch the ball...I don't see this as a balk.

If he throws to the base, whether the fielder is there or not, it is not a balk. If the F3 is close enough to first then F1 can throw to him away from the play. If he is away from the bag, it is a balk.

quote:

Originally posted by mrtarheel:
Yes the kid did throw to the base and not to the 1st baseman...so if I am reading this correctly, it is a balk, the ball is dead and the runners move up one base?

I know it may be hard to believe, but the so pitcher did it a second time but the 1st baseman mover toward the bad and the pitcher kind of threw a little toward his so he could catch the ball...I don't see this as a balk.

No. It is NOT a balk if the pitcher threw directly to 1st base, no matter where the first baseman was (as long as the throw was otherwise legal). If the throw was NOT to the base, it is a balk unless the throw was to a fielder who was close enough to the runner to make a play on him.

I got it now....thanks guys.