You know if the commentators would just take the simple HS umpiring classes offered all over the US... maybe they would not make stupid statements like that and have a better understanding of the rules...
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quote:Originally posted by Will:
well who does a tie go to?
quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
Some umpires believe that there is no such thing as a tie. But it is obvious to me that it is possible for two players to touch a base at the same time (within the limits of human perception). Rules 6.05j and 7.08e state that the runner is out if he or the base is tagged before he touches the base. If you believe that a tie is possible, then the tag does not occur before the runner touches the base. In this case, the tie would indeed go to the runner.
quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
Note that rule 7.08e was revised in 2010 to be consistent with 6.05j. In previous editions, the tie went to the batter/runner at first base but went to the defense at all other bases. The rules wouldn't have needed to be revised if there was no such thing as a tie.
quote:Originally posted by Jimmy03:quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
Some umpires believe that there is no such thing as a tie. But it is obvious to me that it is possible for two players to touch a base at the same time (within the limits of human perception). Rules 6.05j and 7.08e state that the runner is out if he or the base is tagged before he touches the base. If you believe that a tie is possible, then the tag does not occur before the runner touches the base. In this case, the tie would indeed go to the runner.
Nice try.
MLB has for years stated that nothing in the rules is intended to provide for a tie. One thing happens before another, as is worded.
The odds in real life against the ball hitting the glove and the runner toucing the bag at exactly the same time are huge. Ties do not happen. It is simply academic gymnastics that certain people enjoy playing. By rule and reality, one event happens before the other. If you see ties, you shouldn't be umpiring.
quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
No. Read the rule again. The runner does not have to beat the throw. The throw has to beat the runner. Umpires can perpetuate baseball myths just as well as coaches.
quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
Ball beats runner, runner is out. That's the rule (paraphrased). If the ball does not beat the runner, the defense has not satisfied the criterion for obtaining an out.
Resorting to name calling does not change the facts. I understand that it is customary for many umpires not to acknowledge that a tie is a possibility. But calling someone an idiot or a pretender rather than address the issue itself tends to undermine your position.
quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
With the rule change, it is quite clear that in order to get the out at any base, the tag of the base or the runner must come BEFORE the runner touches the base. Saying there is no such thing as a tie was just a cop-out so that we didn't have to deal with the discrepancy in the rules.
quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
I am not ignoring 7.01. Yes, the runner acquires the base if he touches it before he is out. But he is only out if the tag occurs before the touch.
In the event of a tie, the runner has not touched the base before he or the base was tagged, so he is not entitled to the base (out).quote:So in the event of a tie, the runner has touched the base and has not yet been put out.
quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
No. 7.01 just says that the runner is entitled to the base if he touches it before he has been put out. It does not say how or when the put-out is achieved. For that, you go to 7.08e. 7.08e does not say that the runner must touch the base before he or the base is tagged. 7.08e used to say this, but it was revised in the 2010 edition to be compatible with 6.05j. The rules committee has changed the rule. I am not making this up. It's there for anyone to see. If you choose not to accept it, that's up to you.
quote:Originally posted by Jimmy03:quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
Note that rule 7.08e was revised in 2010 to be consistent with 6.05j. In previous editions, the tie went to the batter/runner at first base but went to the defense at all other bases. The rules wouldn't have needed to be revised if there was no such thing as a tie.
There was never such a thing as a tie in the rulebook, ever. If the rulemakers wanted to consider a tie, they would have, and they wouldn't have disguised the word.I've always offered $100 to any coach or fan who could find that word in the rulebook. Some folks liked to contrive one, but none was ever intended or intepreted by MLB, PBUC. NCAA, FED or anyone else with any interpretive authority. It is specifically taught at the only MLB authorized training schools that there is no tie.
The change in the book was done for consistency and was one of over 230 errors in the rule book.
quote:Originally posted by bsballfan:quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
Ball beats runner, runner is out. That's the rule (paraphrased). If the ball does not beat the runner, the defense has not satisfied the criterion for obtaining an out.
Resorting to name calling does not change the facts. I understand that it is customary for many umpires not to acknowledge that a tie is a possibility. But calling someone an idiot or a pretender rather than address the issue itself tends to undermine your position.
Get used to it, that's what happens if you dare question "the gospel by Jimmy"
quote:Originally posted by jjk:quote:Originally posted by Jimmy03:quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
Note that rule 7.08e was revised in 2010 to be consistent with 6.05j. In previous editions, the tie went to the batter/runner at first base but went to the defense at all other bases. The rules wouldn't have needed to be revised if there was no such thing as a tie.
There was never such a thing as a tie in the rulebook, ever. If the rulemakers wanted to consider a tie, they would have, and they wouldn't have disguised the word.I've always offered $100 to any coach or fan who could find that word in the rulebook. Some folks liked to contrive one, but none was ever intended or intepreted by MLB, PBUC. NCAA, FED or anyone else with any interpretive authority. It is specifically taught at the only MLB authorized training schools that there is no tie.
The change in the book was done for consistency and was one of over 230 errors in the rule book.
PM me and I'll tell you where to send the che.. er cash.
4.10 (a) A regulation game consists of nine innings, unless extended because of a tie score
quote:Originally posted by Rob Kremer:
This is fascinating!
Let's agree that there are three conditions that could exist in any given play at first:
1) ball beats the runner
2) runner beats the ball
2) the ball and runner arriving at the base so close to the same instant that human perception simply cannot see the difference.
Can we agree on this?
quote:Originally posted by Yakyu:
No. 7.01 just says that the runner is entitled to the base if he touches it before he has been put out. It does not say how or when the put-out is achieved. For that, you go to 7.08e. 7.08e does not say that the runner must touch the base before he or the base is tagged. 7.08e used to say this, but it was revised in the 2010 edition to be compatible with 6.05j. The rules committee has changed the rule. I am not making this up. It's there for anyone to see. If you choose not to accept it, that's up to you.
quote:Originally posted by Jimmy03:
You know, I forgot that one. I'll have to go back to using the terminology "tie goes to anyone."
quote:Originally posted by Jimmy03:quote:Originally posted by Rob Kremer:
This is fascinating!
Let's agree that there are three conditions that could exist in any given play at first:
1) ball beats the runner
2) runner beats the ball
2) the ball and runner arriving at the base so close to the same instant that human perception simply cannot see the difference.
Can we agree on this?
Not those professionally trained. Either the ball beats the runner or the runner beats the ball. There is no consideration by MLB, PBUC or umpire schools for an alleged situation where one or the other does not happen.
quote:Let's agree that there are three conditions that could exist in any given play at first:
.......
2) the ball and runner arriving at the base so close to the same instant that human perception simply cannot see the difference.
Can we agree on this?
quote:Originally posted by bballman:
While the chances are extremely small for an actual tie to occur, there does remain the possibility that a tie could occur.
quote:
But if you step away from that and just look at it from a purely logical way, it can be interpreted as a tie goes to the runner.
quote:Originally posted by dash_riprock:
Mathematically, the odds approach infinity against a tie.
quote:Originally posted by TRhit:
How is that the word "interpret" keeps cropping up in this discussion?
Are the rules open to interpretation?