Late swing after catcher has the ball

In most cases yes. The only two reasons I can think of that wouldn't get a strike call is if the ump thinks the offense is trying to speed the game up to their advantage. This would be specific to certain levels. The other is if the catcher is trying to make a play at a base and the swing is meant to interfere with that throw.

if the umpire feels that it was a legitimate attempt to strike the ball, its a strike. There's no set time the pitch has to be completed before a swing is not a strike.

What level ball was this?

Another scenario: two strikes, ball pitched in dirt gets by catcher. As soon as batter realizes the ball is loose, he swings and runs to first.

Fair game? Or would the ruling be that a swinging strike is a attempt to hit the ball, and clearly the batter was not attempting to hit the ball.

These guys were 12 year olds. A coach protested but the plate umpire stated it's a live ball.

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Originally posted by Rob Kremer:
Another scenario: two strikes, ball pitched in dirt gets by catcher. As soon as batter realizes the ball is loose, he swings and runs to first.

Fair game? Or would the ruling be that a swinging strike is a attempt to hit the ball, and clearly the batter was not attempting to hit the ball.

That's a had to be there. I can't imagine a batter either having there awareness to do it or the take the risk of being thrown out.

MST: As far as the risk of being thrown out - if the backstop is deep, not much risk there.

As far as awareness - it would be unusual, for sure. But I could see it, late innings of a game, team in need of baseunners, savvy kid at bat.

But am I right that the definition of a swinging strike is intent to hit the ball? If so, wouldn't his situation be an automatic called ball?

I saw something similar to this in the college world series a few years back. Late in the game, the pitcher was throwing gas and completely overpowering the hitters. One kid had an 0-2 count and swung at a pitch that was 2 feet over his head and 3 feet outside. He made it to first easily and they didn't make him come back.

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But am I right that the definition of a swinging strike is intent to hit the ball? If so, wouldn't his situation be an automatic called ball?

"Intent" is not part of the official definition of a strike, even though intent is obviously part of the concept (2.00). 2.00 says its a legal pitch struck at and missed. Theres a lot of wiggle room there, but 'struck at' implies intent. Its an interp/judgement to be made by the PU. The key is when the PU determines that the 'legal pitch' has ended and the opportunity to strike at it is over...thus no swinging strike after that point.


Judgement calls =|= 'automatic' anything.

Intent to hit the ball is only going to come into play on a checked swing. At that point the umpire has to determine if he intended to swing or not. On a full swing it's a strike.