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Is first considered occupied if there is a steal attempt on a missed third strike? I thought it was still occupied but an ump called it the other way last night and he was pretty sure of it. Obviously I am not an ump but I really like reading this section. It makes me look like a genius among the other Dads when I get a tricky call right. Big Grin
Hustle never has a bad day.
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quote:
Originally posted by Doughnutman:
Is first considered occupied if there is a steal attempt on a missed third strike? I thought it was still occupied but an ump called it the other way last night and he was pretty sure of it. Obviously I am not an ump but I really like reading this section. It makes me look like a genius among the other Dads when I get a tricky call right. Big Grin


You are correct. At the time of the pitch, the runner occupied 1st base because he had not reached 2nd. With less than 2 outs, the batter would not be entitled to run on an uncaught 3rd strike.

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