In a game yesterday, we had the following:
R1 on first. On the pitch, R1 breaks for second. Batter swings and misses. On the back swing, the batter hits the catcher in the back with his back swing after the catcher has caught the ball and has started to step to throw to second. After a slight hesitation, the catcher continues to move forward to make the throw. After finishing back swing, batter's mommentum carries him into the path of the catcher. The catch slams full force into the batter while attempting to make throw but hits the deck instead.
The Ump had two interferences calls. The first one on the back swing hitting the catcher and a second one on the batter interfering with the catcher.
He ruled the first interference on the back swing was to be enforced and put the runner back on first.
My interpretation was the batter interference prevented the catcher from making the play and we'll never know if the back swing interference would have impacted the play.
If the catcher continues with the play and then is interfered by the batter which prevented him from even making a throw, how can you say the back swing interference prevented him from making the play?
The Ump was adamant he HAD to enforce the back swing interference first eventhough he agreed the batter interference is what prevented the catcher from making the play.
Could he have not just waved off or ignored the first interference and ruled on or enforced the second?
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