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OK,

This one is really bugging me.  First time I have seen it in live play.

I'm a coach of 13u-14u players, coaching my youngest of 3 sons, so have been coaching for 15+ years, and was an umpire in college for High School ball.

Situation: My team's runners on Second and First, 1 out, tied game.

The Play:

  • Second base runner has a wide lead at second.  The pitcher has already tried to pick off the runner at second through two legal spin moves, the runner retreating to second base safe, all good there.
  • Next 'pitch', the runner takes a wide lead with the pitcher in the set position, the right handed pitcher is in contact with the rubber, lifts his left foot, and spins to throw to second.
  • Except the runner then breaks for third.  The pitcher, while keeping his front foot in the air, then spins in the opposite direction and throws to third.  During this process, the runner stops, (because one of the players yells "Balk" because of the 'double spin move", and the third baseman walks 3 feet and tags out the runner.


Our position was that it was a balk because the pitcher did two things:  A) He threw to an unoccupied base, and B), while he was spinning to throw to second, his front foot crossed the rubber, so therefore- even while it was in mid air- he can't respin and throw to third... he has to go home or throw to second.

There was natural confusion, the umpire didn't really know, and in the end ruled it was NOT a balk, the runner's out.

It was a very close game, but we let it go.  And lost (but no big deal, another game and the kids played well).

And then it really started bugging me, and I see in the OBR, that a pitcher can't throw to an unoccupied base when on the rubber, except to 'make a play'.  But then there are other balk rules about the front foot going behind the rubber/plate, throws to second, etc.etc.

So... Myself, my coaches, and more importantly the players want to know... was this a balk?

Thanks in advance!

-Jon

Original Post

Replies sorted oldest to newest

In my mind this is a balk.

NFHS 6.2.4  (b) and (f)

ART. 4 . . . Balk. If there is a runner or runners, any of the following acts by a pitcher while he is touching the pitcher’s plate is a balk:

b. failing to step with the non-pivot foot directly toward a base (occupied or unoccupied) when throwing or feinting there in an attempt to put out, or drive back a runner; or throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner;

The pitcher did not step directly toward a base.  His first move was to second then in mid motion to 3rd.  By the description was not a direct step.

As far as crossing the back of the rubber...

f. failing to pitch to the batter when the entire non-pivot foot passes behind the perpendicular plane of the back edge of the pitcher’s plate, except when feinting or throwing to second base in an attempt to put out a runner.

Once the non pivot foot crossed, the pitcher was committed to 2 actions.  1. Stepping directly to second or 2. pitching to the batter.

The pitcher would have been correct to step toward second... fake the throw there then throw to 3rd.

Army 54 is correct... the base need not be occupied at the time of the pitch if the runner was advancing to 3rd on the motion.

Now imagine this scenario... a RHP runner on 1st.  As RHP lifts left leg, runner breaks to 2nd on 1st move.  RHP spins and throws to 2nd ... not a balk provided his left foot did not completely cross the back edge of the rubber.  Have yet to see that in an actual game, but have played it over and over in my mind - and can't see where there is a rules infraction.

@NewUmpire posted:


Now imagine this scenario... a RHP runner on 1st.  As RHP lifts left leg, runner breaks to 2nd on 1st move.  RHP spins and throws to 2nd ... not a balk provided his left foot did not completely cross the back edge of the rubber.  Have yet to see that in an actual game, but have played it over and over in my mind - and can't see where there is a rules infraction.

Agree with what you said regarding the original situation.  Would have to see it, but I think maybe a balk if he hangs the leg toward 2nd, but keeps leg up and then just shifts toward 3rd base and throws there.  Umpire lore says it's hard to balk to an occupied 2nd base, but this might be an exception.

He's fine if he steps directly toward 2nd base.  He doesn't even have to make a "fake throw"; the act of stepping toward 2nd base is considered to be the "feint."  Once he has made that step toward 2nd, he is legally disengaged and can throw wherever he wants.

By the book, he could also just lift his leg, step straight to third, and throw there ahead of the advancing runner.  But - this is likely to be balked in a lot of places, even though technically legal.  If considering doing it, it might be a good idea to have a chat about it with the base umpire beforehand.



Regarding the first-move steal from 1st base: the non-pivot foot crossing the rubber is irrelevant if making a play at 2nd base.  Pitcher just has to step in the direction of 2nd base and throw ahead of the runner.  Same caveat about maybe getting balked, even if making this move legally.

I Reread the rule. If the non pivot foot crosses back edge of the pitching rubber he can not throw to third. The rule specifies 2nd base only exception. He must go to second or home. World Series steal of home the other night. Kershaw steps off the rubber, which is fine. Even if he does not, it is not a balk, but then becomes a pitch.

Thank you for all the quick feedback! 

@ReluctantO'sFan 's explanation was what we thought as well.

Ironically, after even doing more research, it appears that it would have been OK if the pitcher spun to second base, front foot going to the ground towards second, then *not* throwing to second (which is legal), and then since he is now a fielder, could have thrown to third base.

I will admit, the opposing pitcher in this case was very, very good with his pick off moves, so kudo's to him.

-Jon

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