old question

20dad1,000+ posts

i'm sure this is here somewhere but i couldn't find it.

runner on first less than two outs.dropped third strike.b/r heads to first. called out at the plate.(third strike)because first base occupied. at what point is first not occupied?clearly the runner has a lead? may have been stealing second?
i know it's an old question but i have heard many takes on it. umpires judgement? thanks

10/29/065:36 AM

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jjk500+ posts

With R1, 1st base is not occupied when 2B is.
A runner owns a base until he reaches the next one. So regardless if R1 is stealing or has gotten a great jump, it doesn't matter. BR out.
The only judgement by the umpire would be is the runner at 1st or at 2nd. Not on his way to 2nd nor really close to 2nd but at 2nd; before the pitch.

10/29/068:41 AM

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Pirate Fan100+ posts

The key to this question is "time of pitch".

The runner on 1st has not legally reached 2nd at the time of the pitch. So regardless were the Runner is; at the time of the pitch, he occupied 1st base.

10/30/068:36 AM

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LonBlue67100+ posts

quote:
Originally posted by Pirate Fan:
The key to this question is "time of pitch".

The runner on 1st has not legally reached 2nd at the time of the pitch. So regardless were the Runner is; at the time of the pitch, he occupied 1st base.

Exactly!

10/31/0612:52 AM

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20dad1,000+ posts

makes sense,but i have seen it called the other way. some times i like it,some times i don't .and you know which times i'm sure. thanks guys

10/31/066:01 PM

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NHFundamentalsDad100+ posts

20dad,

In those circumstances, the batter is always out. The other posters are correct, at the start of the play, 1st & second are occupied.

I hear you on seeing it called differently, but that is usually due to the level of competency of the umpire. Be prepared this year to see a drop in that respect from what you have been seeing in Class L.

11/6/068:27 AM

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