Pitcher throwing to 2nd

Yes it is Fed rule also. In case book, Infractions by pitcher 6.2.4 Situation A: "With R1 on thrid and R2 on first, F1 stretches and comes set. He then swings his entire nonpivot foot behind the back edge of the pitchers plate, steps toward second and (a) throws the ball to sencond in an attempt to retire R2, who is advancing there or (b) feints throw to second to drive back R2 back to first, who has neither attempted nor feinted an advance to second. RULING: In (a) , this is legal. In (b), it is a balk.

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Just wondering why, when a runner on first breaks early towards 2nd, the pitcher always seems to throw to 1st ... who then throws to 2nd to try to get the runner?

whoever caught the ball from the pitcher.

NO, no, no ... my bad. I didn't intend to put a question mark at the end. I'm chuckling, seeing you read that thinking, "Now THAT was a stupid question"! My intent was to end with a period and emphsize "then".

So my question was why the play always seems to go 1-3-4 when it could go directly 1-4. Seems like more coaches would work on that situation.

Thanks, LonBlue.

RPD,

Often times, when a runner from first breaks for second, the pitcher has already committed toward first base. To avoid a balk call he must continue to first with the throw. If he hesitates at all toward first then throws to second to get the runner he'll be called for a balk.

So, although it is legal for the pitcher to turn toward second and throw there it's usually safer for him to just throw to first and let the first baseman throw to second.

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So, although it is legal for the pitcher to turn toward second and throw there it's usually safer for him to just throw to first and let the first baseman throw to second.

Very true ... and makes good sense. Thanks, Pilsner.