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Just curious because I had this happend to me in a tournament this weekend (13u). There is a runner at second base. There was then a wild pitch and on the wild pitch the ball found an opening in the back stop and went out of play. The ruling the umpire made was that he awarded the runner home plate and allowed him to score. I argued that third base was never occupided and therefore should only get third. He replied that he was almost there and that he was going to get third anyways on the pass ball therefore he would get awarded home. Was this the right call?
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I'll let someone else give you a definitive answer, but we discussed a similar situation earlier.

On a ground ball the 3B threw it out of the field of play. The runner on base is awarded 2 bases from the "time of the pitch."

My guess is it would be a similar situation, and the runner would be given 2 bases from the time of the pitch, but I want someone else to confirm that. There may be a difference in a pitched ball and a batted ball.
Originally posted by P-Dog:
In theory once he steps off it's two. In practice, I usually see any pickoff throw which goes out of play resulting in a 1 base award, regardless of whether the throw came from the rubber or after a step-off. The rules specify "rubber", not mound, but it's frequently interpreted differently.

It's not "theory", it's by rule. Once the pitcher disengages from the pitcher's plate (rubber), he/she is no longer a pitcher but a fielder. The mound is just the elevated area upon which the rubber sits. If it's interpreted "differently", it's interpreted wrongly.
Last edited by bluezebra

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