Runner Interference--How to score the at bat

In pro rules 10.10b6 says credit the putout to the fielder being interfered with. 10.02a1i says the batter isn't credited with an official time at bat.

Thanks!

Just a follow-up here. The OP says "the batter is awarded first base".

Was he really "awarded" 1st base?? -- or is he there because he hit a single. Had he instead hit a grounder to the infield, I don't think he would have been "awarded" first base in this situation.


MST, with all due respects, I'm wondering if the 10.02a section you referred to isn't talking about a batter who is awarded 1st because HE was somehow interfered with. No time at bat charged in that case ... but in the scenario presented here, I'm wondering if we don't have a legitmate single.

Thanks.

Maybe "awarded" first base was a bad choice of words. However, the batter did end up there and he wasn't called out and sent back to the dugout. So, what is it? It seems that the scorekeeper has the discretion to call it a hit if he/she thinks the batter would have been safe without regard to the interference.

quote:

It seems that the scorekeeper has the discretion to call it a hit if he/she thinks the batter would have been safe without regard to the interference.

This is true.

OBR 10.06: A base hit shall not be scored in the following cases: (e) When a runner is called out for interference with a fielder attempting to field a batted ball, unless in the scorer's judgment the batter-runner would have been safe had the interference not occurred.

Agreed. Now, if the scorekeeper did not think the batter would have been safe, does the Rule Michael Taylor cited apply, resulting in no at bat, or is it something else. And, if it is not an official at bat, what do you write on the scorecard/box score?

If I understand the OP correctly a runner was called out on an interference. Now I may be making an assuption here but it had to have been with F3 causing the ball to go into the outfield. If this is so then the BR beinging awarded first is correct. On the interference the ball is imediately dead, runner is called out, BR placed at first and all other runners return to TOP bases unless forced. The runs shouldn't have counted if it as I understand the play. Now if the interference was sometime later in the play, on a thrown ball then it would be a whole different scoring rules.
But as I'm reading it the putout is credited to F3, BR to first and no official time at bat.
Now I generally stay out of rule 10.00 so if there is someone with better knowledge I will bow out.

MST, that was exactly the situation and exactly what happened. Since I started this string, the local paper came out and it turns out that the official scorer awarded a hit per rule 10.06.

That exact situation ended our season last night. Bottom of the seventh, bases loaded one out, down by a run and a ground ball hit to the right side, ball gets through and 2 runs score and celebration begins....not so fast, ump talks to field ump and rules interference on the runner. Then we ground out to end the game. Tough way to end the season. I will not sleep soundly for about 8 months!

Twice in one day! Sorry to hear your result. How did you score the AB for the batter?

We didn't have to score the batter because the ump that said he understood the call and the rule perfectly said our batter was out and all of the runners had to return to their bases.

I guess the ump was wrong. He should read this string.

Holden -- just to clarify ... did the interference have anything to do with the first baseman not fielding the ball, or was it basically a clean single?

RPD, The interference call definitely involved the runner on first and the first baseman. As for whether or not it was a clean single, it appears that the people with the best view--the other team--thought it was. On the other hand, who can say for sure that the first baseman wouldn't have gotten to it but for the runner?