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I was watching a few innings of the Cardinals Red Sox game last night.  I need some clarification on the call of obstruction.  Cardinals' Taveras hits sharp grounder back at pitcher Kelly, Ball hits Kelly's knee and goes towards first base line.  Taveras runs past as Kelly picks up ball in fair territory.  To my eye it appears that Taveras is mostly inside runners lane, but left foot and arm is either slightly stradling or on baseline.  Kelly's toss hits Taveras in arm.  Umpire immediately calls Taveras out.  

 

I get confused by this issue, I seem to remember previous threads where it was about not obstructing a throw from the catcher primarily.  Does it matter in this case when the ball had hit a fielder prior to bouncing towards first base line?  It did not appear that was intent to obstruct by Taveras, not that I recall intent is required, but in this situation I don't know how this is the proper call.  I thought Taveras had a chance to beat the throw anyway, and would have had to cross the line to touch the base regardless.  The umpire called it immediately, and did not waiver in his belief.  In real time, I thought it should have gone to Taveras.  Replay showed the foot on or just inside the line.  

 

Thanks, always looking for insight on these types of calls.

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Here’s the rule.

 

OBR 6.05 A batter is out when—

(k) In running the last half of the distance from home base to first base, while the ball is being fielded to first base, he runs outside (to the right of) the three-foot line, or inside (to the left of) the foul line, and in the umpire’s judgment in so doing interferes with the fielder taking the throw at first base, in which case the ball is dead; except that he may run outside (to the right of) the three-foot line or inside (to the left of) the foul line to avoid a fielder attempting to field a batted ball;

 

Rule 6.05(k) Comment: The lines marking the three-foot lane are a part of that lane and a batterrunner is required to have both feet within the three-foot lane or on the lines marking the lane. The batter-runner is permitted to exit the three-foot lane by means of a step, stride, reach or slide in the immediate vicinity of first base for the sole purpose of touching first base.

First, it's not OBS, it's INT.

 

To avoid interfereing with a throw to first, the runner's feet must be entirely inside the lane (and the lines are part of the lane).  If a foot is out (or was out the last time it was on the ground) and the runner is hit, the runner will be out.

 

An exception is made if the runner has  been in the lane the whole way and steps out on his last step to the base (since the base is mostly outside the lane).  Here, the runner will not be out.  But, if the runner has been out of the lane, then the runner does not get this exception even if he is in his last step toward the base.

 

The fact that the ball was deflected does not matter in this play.

Originally Posted by Matt13:
Originally Posted by RJM:

Taveras was called out because the umpire believed he waved his arm at the ball to purposely interfere with the play.

Nope.

That's what they said on tv. It came from the sideline reporter down on the field who listened to the umpires explaining it to the managers.

Last edited by RJM

How could Taveras do that?  He was past the pitcher/fielder and had no way of knowing where the throw would be.  BTW, the 1st base ump called this and not the home plate umpire.  I thought that odd.  In the two previous steps/strides, Taveras' foot was touching the line.  On the stride that he was hit in the arm/shoulder region by he was outside the box and inside the field by about two inches.  At least that is what they showed here in St. Louis. 

Originally Posted by RJM:
Originally Posted by Matt13:
Originally Posted by RJM:

Taveras was called out because the umpire believed he waved his arm at the ball to purposely interfere with the play.

Nope.

That's what they said on tv. It came from the sideline reporter down on the field who listened to the umpires explaining it to the managers.

I think that is the telephone game at work. There's no movement by Taveras that is consistent with that assessment, and the call is indicative of RLI. Far more likely that Matheny said something that questioned if it had to be intentional and that was what was picked up.

Originally Posted by CoachB25:

How could Taveras do that?  He was past the pitcher/fielder and had no way of knowing where the throw would be.  BTW, the 1st base ump called this and not the home plate umpire.  I thought that odd.  In the two previous steps/strides, Taveras' foot was touching the line.  On the stride that he was hit in the arm/shoulder region by he was outside the box and inside the field by about two inches.  At least that is what they showed here in St. Louis. 

If you look at the replay on MLB.com, his left foot is out on the stride before and after he was hit. The best view starts at :43.

 

http://m.mlb.com/video/topic/6...-running-inside-line

Last edited by Matt13
Originally Posted by Matt13:
Originally Posted by RJM:
Originally Posted by Matt13:
Originally Posted by RJM:

Taveras was called out because the umpire believed he waved his arm at the ball to purposely interfere with the play.

Nope.

That's what they said on tv. It came from the sideline reporter down on the field who listened to the umpires explaining it to the managers.

I think that is the telephone game at work. There's no movement by Taveras that is consistent with that assessment, and the call is indicative of RLI. Far more likely that Matheny said something that questioned if it had to be intentional and that was what was picked up.

I'm not debating with you. I'm telling you what the sideline reporter heard the umpire tell the managers. If you're better and smarter than the sideline reporter and the MLB umpires more power to you. Afterall, you have a better view on tv than an umpire right on the play.

Originally Posted by RJM:
Originally Posted by Matt13:
Originally Posted by RJM:
Originally Posted by Matt13:
Originally Posted by RJM:

Taveras was called out because the umpire believed he waved his arm at the ball to purposely interfere with the play.

Nope.

That's what they said on tv. It came from the sideline reporter down on the field who listened to the umpires explaining it to the managers.

I think that is the telephone game at work. There's no movement by Taveras that is consistent with that assessment, and the call is indicative of RLI. Far more likely that Matheny said something that questioned if it had to be intentional and that was what was picked up.

I'm not debating with you. I'm telling you what the sideline reporter heard the umpire tell the managers. If you're better and smarter than the sideline reporter and the MLB umpires more power to you. Afterall, you have a better view on tv than an umpire right on the play.

Knock off the snideness. I'm telling you what you are saying and what the sideline reporter thought was said is not consistent with what the actions on the field nor what call was indicated.

Regardless of what the umpire ruled about the arm or said about it afterward (and I agree with Darrell that there's no way Taveras could have intentionally hit the ball with his arm), even this Cardinal fan can see his left foot is completely out of the lane before and after the ball hit him.

 

It also looks like Taveras knew it: how else to explain his stutter step to try to get his left foot back in the box right after he was hit?

 

Good call.  Questionable explanation.  He's still out.

Originally Posted by Swampboy:

Regardless of what the umpire ruled about the arm or said about it afterward (and I agree with Darrell that there's no way Taveras could have intentionally hit the ball with his arm), even this Cardinal fan can see his left foot is completely out of the lane before and after the ball hit him.

 

It also looks like Taveras knew it: how else to explain his stutter step to try to get his left foot back in the box right after he was hit?

 

Good call.  Questionable explanation.  He's still out.

I'm going to slightly hijack here, because this thought was in my head throughout the "explanation" that was given (was it by Sutcliffe?) from the start, and how it would have had to been a massive pooch-screwing for that to have been the call, even though the outcome is identical.

 

I hate missing calls, I hate missing rotations, I hate being out of position. I've had games where I'm beating myself up for being too slow on moving, too fast on reacting, and being at the wrong place--all while nothing important happens. To the casual observer, there is nothing out of place, but I'm feeling like I'm having the worst game of my life.

 

A couple of years ago, in a D2 or D3 game (can't remember) I was PU with R1, and a ball hit to the left-center gap. F8 was just getting the ball as R1 approached 3B, and F5 stood over the base and applied a fake tag, slowing the runner so he decided not to advance. I had obstruction because the fielder was in the way of the runner trying to round to home, and my partner had obstruction because of the fake tag. The problem is that fake tags are not, in and of themselves, obstruction in NCAA. We both called it simultaneously (which was also an issue, because with no play at third, that's PU's call) and DC comes out to discuss with him. DC, to his credit, knew the rule, and hemmed my partner up one side and down the other. 

 

In the end, the call was right in terms of the outcome. However, from the mechanic through the rule interpretation, my partner kicked the hell out of the call, and DC knew it.

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