I was watching a few innings of the Cardinals Red Sox game last night. I need some clarification on the call of obstruction. Cardinals' Taveras hits sharp grounder back at pitcher Kelly, Ball hits Kelly's knee and goes towards first base line. Taveras runs past as Kelly picks up ball in fair territory. To my eye it appears that Taveras is mostly inside runners lane, but left foot and arm is either slightly stradling or on baseline. Kelly's toss hits Taveras in arm. Umpire immediately calls Taveras out.
I get confused by this issue, I seem to remember previous threads where it was about not obstructing a throw from the catcher primarily. Does it matter in this case when the ball had hit a fielder prior to bouncing towards first base line? It did not appear that was intent to obstruct by Taveras, not that I recall intent is required, but in this situation I don't know how this is the proper call. I thought Taveras had a chance to beat the throw anyway, and would have had to cross the line to touch the base regardless. The umpire called it immediately, and did not waiver in his belief. In real time, I thought it should have gone to Taveras. Replay showed the foot on or just inside the line.
Thanks, always looking for insight on these types of calls.