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Looking for clarification from the umpires on this forum regarding a play that occurred during last night's Twins-Royals baseball game.

Runners on 3rd and 2nd, 1 out. Batter hits a ball to the 2nd baseman (who was playing in), runner from third takes off on contact. Throw comes in to the catcher and fearing that he'll be thrown out at the plate -- the runner stops running and then retreats back to 3rd base. Naturally, when the runner on 3rd went home, the runner on 2nd went to 3rd. By the time the runner that was originally on 3rd base had retreated back to 3rd base, the runner that was originally at 2nd base was already occupying the 3rd base bag. The runner from 2nd base STAYED on the bag, while the runner retreating to 3rd inexplicably ran thru the bag, continuing on down the left field line into the outfield.

The fielder that had the ball in his glove tagged the runner that was now occupying 3rd base (originally the runner at 2nd base) but had NOT tagged the retreating runner before he hit 3rd base and just kept running down the line. The umpire called the runner (originally on 3rd base) out for being out of the baseline, yet the fielder kept the tag on the runner occupying 3rd. There was only 1 out called on the play, with a runner now on 3rd base (and on first).

The Twins' announcers were trying to explain it again this afternoon and mentioned something to the effect that had the runner retreating back to 3rd base stayed on the bag, there could have been a double play, explaining that the runner at 2nd wasn't entitled to that base. I do not believe that would have been the case, since he was already occupying the bag. The only way that a double play could have occurred would have been if the fielder tagged both players, and then -- erroneously -- the runner that was originally at 2nd base stepped off the bag, assuming that the umpire had called him out, whereupon the fielder would simply slap another tag on him, (all the while the runner that was originally at 3rd was the proper "out" call by the ump).

Whew. Anybody?
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R3 (the runner originally on 3rd) is entitled to that base until he either: 1) scores (reaches the next base), or 2) is put out. When R3 was called out for being out of his baseline, R2 became entitled to 3rd base.

Which begs the question: If R2 was not yet entitled to 3rd base, why was he not out when he was tagged?

R2 was not called out because R3 was not also touching the base. Had R3 returned to 3rd and stayed there instead of overrunning it, and the fielder tagged both runners (the order of the tags wouldn't matter) R2 would have been out and R3 would remain on the base.
Last edited by dash_riprock

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