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Throwing to an unoccupied base

POLOGREENPOLOGREEN1,000+ posts
Runner on third, pitcher comes to his set position then (he must have forgotten the situation) steps toward third and then throws to first. The coach wanted a balk but I explained he had stepped off the rubber and now was a fielder and could throw anywhere. Was I correct?
I believe I was.

What if the runner was on second and the pitcher just made a pickoff throw to first? Unoccupied base?
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D dash_riprock1,000+ posts
quote:
Originally posted by obrady:
As long as he broke contact with the pitching rubber, he can throw anywhere he wants.

Sort of, yes. If he legally disengages, he can throw (or feint a throw) anywhere. But if he does a jump turn or a jab step move, he's still considered to be engaged, even though his pivot foot may no longer be in contact with the rubber.
D dash_riprock1,000+ posts
quote:
Originally posted by POLOGREEN:
Thanks Dash WOW...I may have kicked it then. Let me explain further what I saw was the RH pitcher stepped to third with his left foot came off the rubber with his right foot turned made the pivot and threw to 1st.....would you still have balked him? Again Thanks I love to learn.

As soon as the pivot foot comes off the rubber after the step toward 3rd (as it almost always does), he is disengaged and can fake or throw anywhere. No balk in your situation. If he stays engaged after the step & fake to 3rd (FED), he MUST throw to 1st if he steps toward it. It's also 1 base if he throws it away.

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