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You guys know how sometimes a coach can make you think you may be incorrect. Here is the situation bases loaded the infielders are on the grass and the pitcher throws to first to try to hold the runner, the first baseman was on the edge if the infield grass. I had previously had a no-call on runner that started toward third and the pitcher legally threw to third (All the umpires in the crowd were up in arms"read the rulebook") I had a chuckle on that one.
Not a problem POLO..

Here is the coresponding FED rule cite for you....

NFHS rule 6-2 Article 4 B.

Balk if there is a runner or runners, any of the following acts by a pitcher while he is touching the pitchers's plate is a balk.

B. Failing to step with the non-pivot foot directly toward a base (occupied or unoccupied) when throwing or feinting there in an attempt to put out, or drive back a runner: or throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner...
quote:
Originally posted by POLOGREEN:
You guys know how sometimes a coach can make you think you may be incorrect. Here is the situation bases loaded the infielders are on the grass and the pitcher throws to first to try to hold the runner, the first baseman was on the edge if the infield grass. I had previously had a no-call on runner that started toward third and the pitcher legally threw to third (All the umpires in the crowd were up in arms"read the rulebook") I had a chuckle on that one.


The question is did he throw to the base or to F3? If he threw to the F3 who was away from the bag with no chance of making an immediate play that is a Balk (at least according to the Evans video). If he legally steps and throws to the base (regardless if anyone is covering) it is NOT a balk (again according to the Evans video)
NavyUmp has this right. In addition to the Evans video, the Major League Baseball Umpires Manual says:"(7.5a) The pitcher shall be charged with a balk if, while in contact with the rubber, he throws to the first baseman who is either in front of or behind first base and obviously not making an attempt at retiring the runner at first base. However, there is no violation if the pitcher throws the ball directly to first base in this situation."
quote:
Originally posted by therefump:
Hmmm. I was wondering if the pitcher threw to first baseman who's playing up. You do learn something new every day. I assume PIAA supports this rule.


You assume correctly.....I support all rules and I support POLO....and the NFHS case book..6.2.4J

as long as F3 is in the proximity of the base, F1 is not guilty of a a balk. Proximity is umpire judgment and is based on whether the fielder is close enough to the base to legitimately make a play on the runner......

In the past POLO has shown himself fairly saavy about the application of rules...so since I was not there, I would support his call or no call in this situation....

just my .02 of course...

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