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so here is the scenario..starting pitcher pitches 5 full innings and 2 batters in the sixth inning...when he leaves the game his team is ahead 7 - 6...when he leaves the game he has left 1 runner on base via a pitcher enters the game pitches for 4 batters during this time...the base runner left on by pitcher #1 scores and pitcher #2 adds 2 more base runners..pitcher #2 is removed and pitcher #3 puts 2 base runners on and the 2 runners put on by pitcher#2 score...when pitcher #3 enters the game the score is tied...go ahead runs on base...left by pitcher#2 who subsequently score...please tell me who the heck the losing pitcher is....thanks in advance
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If the game ends with the other team up, without you tying or going ahead and losing the lead again, pitcher #2 is the loser since the go ahead runs were his. Pitcher #1 gets a no decision essentially leaving with the score tied on his responsibility. The two runners pitcher #2 allowed on are his responsibility and those were the go ahead runs, so he is the loser.
With that question having been answered, here's an interesting followup situation I'm reminded of:

Scoreless game, top of the 6th, both starters still in.

Pitcher #1 walks the leadoff batter. Coach pulls him.

Pitcher #2 enters. First batter he faces grounds to short; runner on first is forced at 2nd; batter is safely on first via fielder's choice.

That runner, now on first, scores. Games ends 1-0.

Who gets the loss -- P1 or P2?
Last edited by RPD
RPD - I believe you know the answer...

Against my better judgement, I'm going to wing this one without looking it up, so I don't have a reference, but I believe P1 is the loser because (this is where not quoting the rule gets me in trouble with the paraphrasing), the original baserunner was P1's responsibility, the fielder's choice was a result of P2 'doing his job' to get an out. Any runners left by P1 or as a result of force outs while P2 pitching are still P1's responsibility.
Hawk -- great point!!

I think I got myself into trouble when I stated "he's responsible for the first RUN that scores, regardless of WHO scores it."

I was trying to paraphrase the rulebook and shouldn't have done that.

Here's what the OBR says: "Rule 10.16(g) Comment: It is the intent of Rule 10.16(g) to charge each pitcher with the number of runners he put on base, rather than with the individual runners. When a pitcher puts runners on base and is relieved, such pitcher shall be charged with all runs subsequently scored up to and including the number of runners such pitcher left on base when such pitcher left the game, unless such runners are put out without action by the batter (i.e., caught stealing, picked off base or called out for interference when a batter-runner does not reach first base on the play). For example:..."

And then in gives 7 different scenarios -- one of which is the one I originally posed.

From re-reading, I'd say that if P1 walks a guy and P2 induces a FC resulting in R1 -- once the bases are cleared (as you suggested via DP), at that point P2 is on his own. So in the scenario you posed, I'd say P2 gets the loss.

Good find!

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