Balk Question

Not 100% sure but I would say this is a balk. You cant throw to an empty base so I would guess you cant fake to one either.

I've read the Fed rule that relates to this situation, and I am not 100% sure. I would be interested in hearing what others say regarding this situation.

That being said, my understanding is that the pitcher may step towards an unoccupied base, as long as he steps directly to the base, and does not throw or feint a throw to the unoccupied base. Once his pivot foot is disengaged from the rubber, he is now a fielder, and may throw back to first or second, or feint a throw to either base.

We'll see what others have to say.

Isnt it a rule that you cant try to deceive the runner - would that apply here? Never understood that rule....if you applied it to left handed pichers just about every throw to 1st would be a balk.

Deception is a part of the game, but there are limitations on what the pitcher is able to do in his attempts to deceive a runner.

So no, there is no rule against deception, only limitations to ways that runners can be deceived.

fed rule book rule 6-2 article 4:if there is a runner or runners,any of the following acts by a pitcher while he is touching the pitcher's plate is a balk b."or throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner." in this situation, the ump would probably call a balk based upon the runner at second not attempting to advance towards third base.

cpttuna is correct, you can't step to a base that is unoccupied. A feint doesn't require an arm movement so what he has done is a feint. Unless the runner had broken to third then it is a balk. It also is an illegal disengagement so either is a balk.

QUOTE] It also is an illegal disengagement so either is a balk. [/QUOTE]

Michael,
If there was a runner on third though, this would be legal correct? I know you're talking about above particular situation, but I just wanted to make sure.

Yes, if there was a R3 then he can step to third and not throw. Then he would be legal to do what he wants, throw to another base or go back and pitch.

cpttuna did not quote all of rule 6-2-4 (b). He left out the part that is causing my not being 100% sure. The entire paragraph (b) is:

"...failing to step with the non-pivot foot directly toward a base (occupied or unoccupied) when throwing or feinting there in an attempt to put out, or drive back a runner; or throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner;"

This seems to be contradictory, as it seems to allow stepping directly towards a base that is unoccupied, but states specifically while throwing or feinting to the unoccupied base which is not allowed. Also, because it separates stepping from throwing or feinting, the act of stepping does not appear to indicate a feint to third, which is unoccupied in our situation.

I appreciate in advance your help in clearing up my confusion regarding 6-2-4 (b).

In my training days my instructor would call this balk "an easy chicken"........


BALK BALK BALK BALK (like the sound of a chicken)...

MST right on the money again.