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This happened to me during one of my HS games this year. With two outs and a runner on third base, a ground ball was hit to the third basemen. The third baseman's throw was off the bag, but the first basemen made the play and tagged the hitter on the swipe. The runner crossed home first though. Now if the throw would have been on the mark, obviously the run doesn't count. But since the first basemen tagged the runner and there was no force, should the run count? F.Y.I...our team was not rewarded with a run.
"You spend a good piece of your life gripping a baseball and in the end it turns out that it was the other way around all the time."
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Here's part of the high school (NFHS) rule. OBR and NCAA rules are worded differently but have the same effect. 9-2-1
"A runner scores one run each time he legally advances to and touches first, second, third and then home plate before there are three outs to end the inning.
EXCEPTION: A run is not scored if the runner advances to home plate during action in which the third out is made as follows:
a. by the batter-runner before he touches first base; or
b. by another runner being forced out; or......"

The rule is worded that way because technically there is no force play at first.

Also, the way your OP is worded implies that you think if a runner is tagged instead of the base, that there is no force out. But that's not true--from 2-24-1
"A force-out is a putout during which a runner who is being forced to advance is tagged out, or is put out by a fielder who holds the ball while touching the base toward which the forced runner is advancing."
Last edited by 3FingeredGlove

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