2 outs, bases empty, batter reaches base on error, any and all runs that score after the error with 2 outs are unearned.
is this correct?
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Right!
We'll I'll be hogtied (for lack of a better word)
My boys HS coach didnt do that and we didnt know. His summer coach told him today.
His HS ERA would have been even lower
ouch!
thx Fungo!
My boys HS coach didnt do that and we didnt know. His summer coach told him today.
His HS ERA would have been even lower
ouch!
thx Fungo!
Backdash,
I think the Earned Run is the most misunderstood “rule” in baseball. It is seldom calculated properly at the high school level. In the situation you mention this team could have hit three home runs and scored 10 runs in that particular inning and they would have ALL been Unearned because that inning would have ended at the time the error occurred.
Fungo
I think the Earned Run is the most misunderstood “rule” in baseball. It is seldom calculated properly at the high school level. In the situation you mention this team could have hit three home runs and scored 10 runs in that particular inning and they would have ALL been Unearned because that inning would have ended at the time the error occurred.
Fungo
Right, when trying to figure earned vs unearned I always ask myself, "would the run have scored if there was no error?" If the answer is no then it is unearned.
It never occured to me about the inning ending situation. So when my kid told me his coach told him that today I originally said "no that cant be right". It just sounded wrong until I asked myself, would the run have scored if there was no error?
It still didn't feel right so naturally I came here to ask.
Strange how its possible for apitcher to have an ERA for 1 game of 0 but the opponent could have scored 1 or more runs.
Tell you what though, I LIKE THIS RULE!
It never occured to me about the inning ending situation. So when my kid told me his coach told him that today I originally said "no that cant be right". It just sounded wrong until I asked myself, would the run have scored if there was no error?
It still didn't feel right so naturally I came here to ask.
Strange how its possible for apitcher to have an ERA for 1 game of 0 but the opponent could have scored 1 or more runs.
Tell you what though, I LIKE THIS RULE!
Carry this a little further - R2, 1 out, B4 grounds to SS, overthrows 1B, R2 scores [on the error]. B5 hits HR, which R2 would have scored on anyway, since the error occured with 1 out. I know B5's run is earned - what about R2?
R2's run is earned, B4's is not as he should have been out at first.