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I had this happen awhile back and what thinking about it today, so I am coming to the experts for the answer. The situation is this... Player pops it up right by home plate. The catcher pops up, is straddling the 1st base line. It appears that the ball is in foul territory. the catcher drops the ball. the question is - fair or foul. I am thinking it is a judgement call based on the ball, not the player positioning, correct?
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One of my favorite plays happened many years ago. My player flared a ball up the first base line and stood in the box. The catcher bolted, was in foul territory, the ball was touched by the catcher in fair territory. I'm yelling run to the batter who takes off late. The ball spins out of the catcher's mitt, my runner kicks it (on the ground) on the way to first. Both umps stared at each other.

First ruling, ball is fair, was touched in fair territory. The catcher's feet nor where it subsequently landed after being touched fair mattered.

Second ruling, runner is safe. Once the ball went through the defender the runner being safe was based upon if the runner kicked the ball on purpose or accidently. Ruled unintentional, runner safe. [If the ball had not gone through the defense, he would have been out, intentional or not.]
Last edited by baseballpapa
Bubble,

The ball is fair if touched in fair territory, and foul if touched in foul territory. Example, if a bounding ball down the 3rd base line, hits the line and then bounces foul but the 3rd basemen fields it while in fair territory, it's still a foul ball becaue the ball was in foul territory when it was touched by the fiedler. It cannot be touched in foul territory and then become a fair ball. The ball can hit in foul territory, bounce in to fair where it is fielded for a fair ball though.

Confused yet? Smile

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