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I need some help.My pitcher is at the stretch. Runner at second with a lead. Pitcher properly swings his free foot past the rubber in an attempt to pick off the runner at 2d because the runner has a big lead.(Often called the "inside pickoff move") As he swings the foot past the rubber, the runner takes off to third. Here's the question: Does the pitcher have to actually step (plant his foot) toward second with that free foot he is swinging toward second base before he then disengages and runs at the runner trying to steal..OR...can he interrupt his swinging the free foot past the rubber and run at the runner without actually first stepping toward second base?
Rule 8.05 is confusing. The ump last night called a balk because the pitcher interrupted his move toward second and didnt actually plant the foot toward second before he then ran at the runner and caught him
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If the runner is breaking towards 3b and the pitcher sees this and reacts accordingly, I'd assume that the runner would be somewhere near the same angle that the SS is from the mound. If the pitcher steps directly at where the runner is and immediately disengages himself from the rubber then this is not a balk because the pitcher has established his intent to move towards 2b by crossing the "angular threshold" that is the rubber.
"If the runner is breaking towards 3b and the pitcher sees this and reacts accordingly, I'd assume that the runner would be somewhere near the same angle that the SS is from the mound. If the pitcher steps directly at where the runner is and immediately disengages himself from the rubber then this is not a balk because the pitcher has established his intent to move towards 2b by crossing the "angular threshold" that is the rubber."

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Don't understand, pitcher is already in his delivery from a stretch, how does he disengage from the rubber without breaking his delivery? Not sure if crossing the plane with his free foot establishes intent. I would agree if his foot on the rubber pivoted towards 2b then he has established intent.
He does not have to step directly toward second. Since the runner took off, he can step toward third to make a play on him. As it sounds from the description you gave, this should not have been a balk. Maybe the balk was called for a hesitation at the top of the leg lift that was not normally in the pitching motion.
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Not sure about that, I don't think you can throw to and unoccupied base when on the rubber without stepping off first. BTW, This post was moved to the "Ask the umpire" section.

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