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My right handed pitcher is at the stretch. Runner at second with a lead. Pitcher properly swings his free foot past the rubber in an attempt to possibly pick off the runner at 2d because the runner has a big lead.(Often called the "inside pickoff move") As he swings the foot past the rubber, the runner takes off to third. Here's the question: Does the pitcher have to actually step (plant his foot) toward second with that free foot he is swinging toward second base before he then disengages the rubber and runs at the runner trying to steal..OR...can he interrupt his swinging the free foot past the rubber and run at the runner without actually first actually stepping toward second base?
Rule 8.05 is confusing. What rule do I follow??The ump last night called a balk because the pitcher interrupted his complete move toward second and didnt actually plant the foot toward second before he then ran at the runner and caught him with a tag
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This is a balk. Once the free foot goes behind the rubber, the pitcher must deliver a pitch, or continue around for the throw to second. In order to throw to third legally, he would need to step to second, then disengage the rubber first.

If the free foot moves behind the rubber, and then changes direction forward toward the plate, the pitcher must deliver to home.
Your rule is 8.05(c). Look at the comment, 2nd paragraph, first sentence. That should hopefully help understand why it is a balk.

Also, if the foot went toward the plate, it could be ruled he didn't complete his pitch which is 8.05(a).

His only saving grace can be is feinting the 3B for the purpose of making a play. It doesn't sound like this applies as I envision the play but is possible.

Based on my envisioning of it, I have a balk under (a) or (c). It sounds like he was feinting to 2B but stepped toward 3B or HP.
Last edited by Mr Umpire

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