Skip to main content

Runners on first and second, pitcher had not yet toed the rubber, and base ump throws up hands and yells: "that's a ball!"

Everyone thinks he said "That's a balk!" Runner on second jogs to third, pitcher looks at ump for an explanation. Umpire says "He went to his mouth while on the mound. Batter gets a ball."

OK fine, but shouldn't the runner have to go back to second? Ump let him stay at third. The guy threw his hands up in the air - doesn't that kill the play?
Original Post

Replies sorted oldest to newest

First of all, BU shouldn't have called anything until F1 engaged the rubber. If F1 had gone to his mouth with his pitching hand (and not wiped it off), put that hand on the ball and then engaged the rubber, TIME should have been called, and a ball added to the count.

Before he engages the rubber, F1 can correct his mistake by asking for time and a new ball.
In reference to your question as to whether or not this is a dead ball:

8.02 The pitcher shall not-
(a)(1)Bring his pitching hand in contact with his mouth or lips while in the 18 foot circle surrounding the pitching rubber. EXCEPTION: Provided it is agreed to by both managers, the umpire prior to the start of a game played in cold weather, may permit the pitcher to blow on his hand.

Official Notes - Case Book - Comments: PENALTY: For violation of this part of this rule the umpires shall immediately call a ball. However, if the pitch is made and a batter reaches first base on a hit, an error, a hit batsman or otherwise, and no other runner is put out before advancing at least one base, the play shall proceed without reference to the violation. Repeated offenders shall be subject to a fine by the league president.


As you can see, neither the rule nor the OBR casebook give direction to the kill the ball. However, according to the JEA:

Customs and Usage: (1) Generally, when this violation is called, the umpire is able to signal the infraction and call “time” before the pitch is thrown. if the pitch is delivered, however, it is nullified unless the batter and all runners advance at least one base.
quote:
Originally posted by Rob Kremer:
So the umpire should call time if he can stop the pitch from being thrown. In the case I saw, the ump seemed to do just that - he threw his hands up in the air and yelled "Ball!"

Doesn't that call time? Is there a time when the umpire throws both hands up (other than a foul ball) when time is not called?

In that situation, I can't envision the umpire NOT being able to call time before the pitch is thrown. The correct mechanic would be "TIME - that's a ball - he went to his mouth on the mound."

BU should have returned the runner. He signaled time (even though he didn't verbalize it), and if it looks like a duck...
quote:
Originally posted by Rob Kremer:
So the umpire should call time if he can stop the pitch from being thrown. In the case I saw, the ump seemed to do just that - he threw his hands up in the air and yelled "Ball!"

Doesn't that call time? Is there a time when the umpire throws both hands up (other than a foul ball) when time is not called?


The hands up signal should kill play. BTW, time IS called on a foul. That's why umpires put the ball in play after each foul ball
Last edited by Jimmy03

Add Reply

×
×
×
×
Link copied to your clipboard.
×