Our pitcher strikes out the batter. However, it is a wild pitch and the runner advances safely to first and then scores later in the inning. There were no additional errors, passed balls, or wild pitches in the inning. Knowing that wild pitches count against the pitcher and result in earned runs if a runner advances and comes home as a result of a wild pitch, am I correct to assume that this also is an earned run?
Replies sorted oldest to newest
Were there two outs when the wild pitch/batter reached base occurred?
Just Watching,
The short and sweet of it is, it doesn’t matter how many outs there were or what the situation was. The run that scored didn’t reach on an error, an interference, or a passed ball. That means if there were no errors, the run is earned.
Different situation. Runner on first no outs. His is sac to second. Next batter hbp. next batter grounds to 3rd who commits an error allowing runner on second to score. next batter pops out to pitcher and next batter hits into FC. If no error occurred runner could not have scored. Am I looking at this wrong?
Any and all runs that score with 2 outs, after an error is committed with 2 outs, is an unearned run. When these questions are asked, you MUST allow us to know what the full situation is in the inning.
Sorry let me be clearer because i am confused. Runners are on 1st and 2nd with 1 out.
batter hits a ground ball to 3rd baseman that goes through his legs. He is about 3 feet from the 3rd base bag. Runner on 2nd scores because the ball goes into the no man's land between 3rd and left field. Next batter pops out to pitcher for 2nd out. Next batter hits into fielders choice. Would the run be earned?
Unearned. Unless you have a wild pitch to batter that pops out and you rule a FC to batter that should have grounded out to third with runners advancing to 2nd and 3rd.
#32 DAD,
It isn’t a matter of what COULD have happened. The scorer is given direction for determining earned runs.
