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Runner on 2nd base, 2 out. Batter hits a base hit to center field, but rolls his ankle comming out of the box. Center fielder throws the runner out at the plate trying to score for the 3rd out. Is it a hit because the hitter was not forced out at first or is it not because the hitter never actually touched first?

thanks
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no hit, its a fielders choice......

FIELDER'S CHOICE is the act of a fielder who handles a fair grounder and, instead of throwing to first base to put out the batter-runner, throws to another base in an attempt to put out a preceding runner.

The term is also used by scorers (a) to account for the advance of the batter-runner who takes one or more extra bases when the fielder who handles his safe hit attempts to put out a preceding runner; (b) to account for the advance of a runner (other than by stolen base or error) while a fielder is attempting to put out another runner; and (c) to account for the advance of a runner made solely because of the defensive team’s indifference (undefended steal).
The question the scorer who saw the play would have to ask is, would the batter have reached first safely but for the third out being made at home first?

Normally, you would expect this to be scored a single with the runner from second (who did advance one base safely) being out at home. This is comparable to someone thrown out trying for a double; you score a single, then the out, not no hit at all.

The injury presents a complicating factor. If you think the CF could've gotten the third out at first, then technically you don't give credit for a hit.

But with the runner having safely advanced from second to third, you would normally treat the batter runner as having reached first safely, thereby earning a hit.

As a matter of scorekeeper's discretion, since I take it you're dealing with younger players, give the batter the benefit of the doubt and give him a hit!

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