with two outs and runners on 2nd and 3rd, batter hits home run, runner on 2nd misses 3rd, if appealed, does 1st run score? I'm confused!
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Yes it does. Preceding runners score.
With a non-force the preceding run scores.
is the runner at 2nd not forced to advance because of the 4-base award to batter-runner?
Forced in the sense that he has to meet certain requirments for his run to count, like touch all the bases in order. But for an appeal, if it wouldn't have been a force on a ground ball to the SS say, then it's not a force on an appeal either.
quote:Originally posted by BroKen:
is the runner at 2nd not forced to advance because of the 4-base award to batter-runner?
No he is not forced. Read the definitions to understand a force. A runner is forced when he must advance because of the batter becomes a runner. In this case the first runner on base is on second. He must advance because of the award not because the batter became a runner.
sorry it took so long for me to reply, but THANKS. The understanding of the definition really did help.
thanks to the others who offered advice as well.
thanks to the others who offered advice as well.
That really makes sense. it seems so simply when you look at it like that. Thanks.
quote:Originally posted by jjk:
Forced in the sense that he has to meet certain requirments for his run to count, like touch all the bases in order. But for an appeal, if it wouldn't have been a force on a ground ball to the SS say, then it's not a force on an appeal either.