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Game yesterday, pitcher on mound, nobody on base, pitcher starts windup, cleat catches on pitchers plate and so then stops pitching motion to start over. Umpire calls "ball" and pitcher is charged with a ball. Umpire says he stepped off with the wrong foot in disengaging the rubber (he actually stumbled a slight bit coming off the rubber). So whether he is charged with a ball for this or stopping his pitching motion after he has started is up in the air, but more importantly I can't see it as either an "illegal pitch" or a "balk" because no runners were on base. We play by MLB rules but I could not find in the official rules where this is called a "ball". Any help would be appreciated.
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By FED rules (basically), things that would be balks with runners on base, are Illegal pitches with no one on, so this would be a ball to the batter. In OBR, it's nothing with no runners, a balk with runners.
6-1-2 Penalty

FED PENALTY (ART. 1, 2, 3): The ball is dead immediately when an illegal pitch occurs. If there is no runner, a ball is awarded the batter. If there is a runner, such illegal act is a balk. In both situations, the umpire signals dead ball.
Award a ball.
Last edited by thecloser
quote:
Originally posted by jjk:
With no runners on, F1 can do hand springs if he chooses. This is nothing.


Your second sentence is accurate. Your first would be accurate if you meant the pitcher would literally be doing handsprings.

However, if you meant it to infer that there is no penalty for an illegal pitch with no runners on, consider:

OBR 8.01 (d) "If the pitcher makes an illegal pitch with the bases unoccupied, it shall be called a ball unless the batter reaches first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter or otherwise."

What makes the OBR different from FED is how narrowly "illegal pitch" is defined.
Last edited by Jimmy03
quote:
Originally posted by thecloser:
By FED rules (basically), things that would be balks with runners on base, are Illegal pitches with no one on....

Where is this stated in the rules?

Here's a counter example: The pitcher drops the ball during delivery. If there is a base-runner, this is a balk. But if the ball does not cross a foul line, and there are no runners, it is no pitch. (6-1-4)
NFHS CASEBOOK
6.2.1 SITUATION A:
With no runners on base, F1 places his pitching on his mouth and distinctly wipes off his pitching hand prior to touching the ball...WHILE TOUCHING THE PITCHERS PLATE
RULING: illegal, and a ball shall be awarded to the batters count.
6.2.2 SITUATION E:
With R1 at first, F1 looks at four or five times in an effort to hold him close and 20 seconds elapse....umpire will call time and award a ball to B2's count
quote:
Originally posted by Tangents23:
So what are some examples of an illegal pitch that would result in a 'ball' call?



OBR
2.00
An ILLEGAL PITCH is (1) a pitch delivered to the batter when the pitcher does not have his pivot foot in contact with the pitcher's plate; (2) a quick return pitch. An illegal pitch when runners are on base is a balk.

8.01..
(d) If the pitcher makes an illegal pitch with the bases unoccupied, it shall be called a ball unless the batter reaches first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter or otherwise.

8.02 The pitcher shall not—
(a) (1) Bring his pitching hand in contact with his mouth or lips while in the 18 foot circle surrounding the pitching rubber. EXCEPTION:.. game played in cold weather, may permit the pitcher to blow on his hand.
PENALTY: For violation of this part of this rule the umpires shall immediately call a ball. However, if the pitch is made and a batter reaches first base..
quote:
Originally posted by Jimmy03:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by jjk:
With no runners on, F1 can do hand springs if he chooses. This is nothing.


Your second sentence is accurate. Your first would be accurate if you meant the pitcher would literally be doing handsprings.

Correct: If F1 stops mid wind up, thinking about this weekends prom night and springs backwards towards 2B, all is good.

However if F1 jettisons a pitch with those cool hand springs the kid on the Goonies had, then yeah a ball would be the call, unless B reaches 1B...

However, if you meant it to infer that there is no penalty for an illegal pitch with no runners on, consider:

No such inference
quote:
Originally posted by jjk:
quote:
Originally posted by Jimmy03:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by jjk:
With no runners on, F1 can do hand springs if he chooses. This is nothing.


Your second sentence is accurate. Your first would be accurate if you meant the pitcher would literally be doing handsprings.

Correct: If F1 stops mid wind up, thinking about this weekends prom night and springs backwards towards 2B, all is good.

However if F1 jettisons a pitch with those cool hand springs the kid on the Goonies had, then yeah a ball would be the call, unless B reaches 1B...


No such gymnastics are required:

8.01..
(d) If the pitcher makes an illegal pitch with the bases unoccupied, it shall be called a ball unless the batter reaches first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter or otherwise.

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