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Ok, batter hits the ball, there is a play at first. How much of the base is the first base man allowed to take? How much of the bag does the runner have a right to? I know a first base man should try to take the edge of the bag to avoid injury to himself, but i wanna know what the rules state.
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Both the fielder and the runner have a right to touch the base. 1st base is no different than any other base, including home. Unless a fielder has possession of the ball, he must allow the runner access to part of the front of the base (relative to the runner), or it is obstruction. A fielder can't block the front of the base giving the runner access only the back of the base.

A first baseman who stands on the top of the bag would not be guilty of obstruction, but he would be putting himself in a position to get spiked, and it would be neither interference nor obstruction.
quote:
Originally posted by brnelson:
Thanks,
But, what if the throw is errant and takes the F3 towards homeplate, In the process F3 keeps his foot on the bag but his other foot is 3 feet away from the bag but right in the middle of the bags path, thus making it more difficult for the runner to touch first?

Obstruction unless F3 has the ball. If he has the ball, it's a train wreck - play on.
thanks for the help.... i just find it kind of confusing. If the baseline is on right hand side of the foul line how can F3 obstruct the runner 3 feet from the base if F3 is still in fair territory? Some rules in baseball just make no sense. This is why I like the double bag in softball. It is much safer and makes the interference/obstruction almost a no factor, and when it does happen, it is easier to call
Yes the base is on the fair side of the foul line, so at some point the BR must cross this line to touch the base. So Umpire judgement is the rule on this type play.

As others have said if the fielder does not have the ball, he will be guilty of obstructing the runner. And I agree the safety base does help, but the train wrecks may still occur.

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