Runner out or live ball?

Would F6 have a chance to make a play on the ball?

If I'm reading this correctly wouldn't the 3B qualify as the first chance fielder other than the pitcher? Maybe it would have to be seen to truly know but unless the ball is pretty far away from him I could see making the argument he had his chance and didn't make it so play on.


Then again I've been horribly wrong before on rules before too.

yawetag Yes the SS would have a play on the ball

quote:

Originally posted by POLOGREEN:
yawetag Yes the SS would have a play on the ball

Runner is out. BR gets 1B.

If an infielder still has a play on the ball, and the ball has not been touched, the runner must avoid the ball.

Yes thats what I have.
Ball becomes dead immediately when: Rule 5 Section 1 DEAD BALL Art. 1, f-1 & 2
f. a fair batted ball:
1. touches a runner or an umpire before touching any fielder and before passing any fielder other than the pitcher.

2. touches a runner after passing through or by an infielder and another infielder could have made a play on the ball

quote:

2. touches a runner after passing through or by an infielder and another infielder could have made a play on the ball

Ok so I'm guessing this is where I'm wrong - correct? I thought the rule said any infielder besides the pitcher but it has to be all the infielders.

quote:

Originally posted by coach2709:

quote:

2. touches a runner after passing through or by an infielder and another infielder could have made a play on the ball

Ok so I'm guessing this is where I'm wrong - correct? I thought the rule said any infielder besides the pitcher but it has to be all the infielders.

All infielders that have a play on the ball. If F6 didn't have a chance to make a play on the ball, then there's no penalty.

Yeah coach2709 at one time I thought the same thing! When I was a Varsity coach, and I thought I knew a lot

quote:

Originally posted by coach2709:

quote:

2. touches a runner after passing through or by an infielder and another infielder could have made a play on the ball

Ok so I'm guessing this is where I'm wrong - correct? I thought the rule said any infielder besides the pitcher but it has to be all the infielders.

All infielders who have a chance for a play on the ball.

Although the language with the rule has not kept up with practice, in the pros they will also protect an outfielder who is coming in and has a play on the ball.

Thanks guys for the clarification.

Fed is a little odd in this area. In your OP, the runner is out because the fielder behind him had a play. That is true in all codes. Now if the fielder behind him didn't have a play as long as the first fielder, F5 in this case, is closer to the plate than the runner he doesn't need to be able to make a play. Fed adheres to the string theory, as long as the there are infielders closer than the runner, making a play isn't an issue.

In our area the "String theory" died years ago.

8-4-2k "The runner is out...
is contacted by a fair batted ball before it touches an infielder, or after it passes any fielder, except the pitcher, and the umpire is convinced that another fielder has a play.

Jimmy, are you saying that your area ignores the Fed interpretation and adheres to the OBR one?

If you are doing Fed then the string theory applies. Nowhere else but Fed still follows it.

quote:

Originally posted by Welpe:
Jimmy, are you saying that your area ignores the Fed interpretation and adheres to the OBR one?

I'm saying the current FED rule does not exactly match the old "string theory" interpretation.

I'll bite, enlighten me. I am willing to abandon the string theory. I always thought it was a dumb interp but have gone along because that's what they said do.

quote:

Originally posted by Jimmy03:
I'm saying the current FED rule does not exactly match the old "string theory" interpretation.

8.4.2 Situations I and J seem to indicate that the "string theory" is still relevant.