How should this at bat be scored.
Bases loaded 0 outs. Batter hits a slow dribbler, SS fields the ball with a slight bobble then goes home, runner is safe. Also what if no slight bobble ?
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If it is the scorers opinion that without the bobble he'd have gotten the runner, then I guess it would be an error on the throw, batter reaches on a Fielder's choice. No RBI. If the bobble did not, in his opinion affect the play then a FC and RBI could be awarded. It's a sort of HadToBeThere kind of thing.
But that's just my amateur opinion. There may be some real scorekeeper opinions out there.
But that's just my amateur opinion. There may be some real scorekeeper opinions out there.
Official MLB Scoring rule 10.06 says that it is not a hit if the batter gets on when a runner is forced out or would have been forced out but for a fielding error.
forgot one thing. If it's a FC the batter gets credit for the RBI.
It could still be a hit if the scorer ruled that bobble or not, there was no play to be made at home or first. Not likely, but possible.
Otherwise, FC.
Otherwise, FC.
Since it has not yet been said directly, without the bobble, score it an infield hit.
TW344
TW344
quote:Originally posted by TW344:
Since it has not yet been said directly, without the bobble, score it an infield hit.
TW344
That is still a judgement call.... IMO you call it a Fielders Choice.... unless you "judge" that he would have beaten the throw to first.
Thanks for the input