Strange play

Assuming ball did not deflect off F6,  runner is out.  The base protects the runner only on an infield fly.

The ball is live.  The ball hitting the runner on the bag is like the ball hitting an umpire, it's considered part of the field, ball is live.  Did the SS catch the ball after it hit the runner?

Not true. If the ball touches the runner at all, the ball is dead and the runner is out unless IFR is called.  Then, the ball is live and runner is not out as long as he is in contact with the base.  If he isn't and is touched by a batted ball regardless if IFR is called or not, the runner is out.

Furthermore, if he unintentionally interfered with F6 (not the ball) while in contact with the base, he would not be called out.  The INT has to be intentional at that point.

Also, the ball hitting the umpire is not live.  Umpires are not considered part of the field.  The only way the ball is live when hitting an umpire is if it passed a fielder.

Uhhhh, no.  Not close to reality in so many ways.

Also not true. If F6 touched the ball and it then hit the runner, the ball is live. However, in OP's situation, no fielder touched it first, so this exception does not apply.

Are you getting two here?

Nope. R2 is out and BR to first.

If you're suggesting the "interference" prevented a double play, then still nope. Ordinarily, this would have resulted in F6 or F4 making the catch and R2 remaining on the base. I can't see banging the second out here.

The intent of my question is that there is no safe zone between the whites lines, and does the rule "The runner must give the defender an opportunity to make a play on the ball" apply ? Had this happen in a Little League game, I called the runner standing on second base out Batter/ Runner was safe at first. Coached argued he was standing on the base therefore he cant be out? I said he was incorrect....he protested and noone on board knew the answer?

I was wrong.  MLB rule, I'll check NFHS later.

"(f) He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an

infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except

runners forced to advance. EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching his base when

touched by an Infield Fly, he is not out, although the batter is out;"

Rick, that proves you're right. In OP, it wasn't an IFF.

I agree yawetag, I just wanted to run it up the flagpole for discussion purposes. 

The runner cannot interfere with a fielder attempting to field a batted ball even if the runner is on his base.  OBR is different from FED in that if the runner is touching his base, he must intentionally interfere to be penalized under OBR.  In your situation, when the runner is hit with the batted ball, the ball is always immediately dead.  The only time the runner is not out is if he is touching his base and the batted ball is an infield fly (and assuming the runner is not otherwise guilty if interference).

Ok.  I inadvertently included more than I wanted to.  I was not thinking about the ball touching F6 first since the OP did not mention it touching F6.  My statement was more inclusive than I wanted it to be.

I've gotten in over my head over FED stuff plenty of times, I've only worked OBR.  So I gotta ask: FED calls this different than OBR?

Rule 7.08(b) Comment: A runner who is adjudged to have hindered a fielder who is attempting to make a play on a batted ball is out whether it was intentional or not.

***If, however, the runner has contact with a legally occupied base when he hinders the fielder, he shall not be called out unless, in the umpire’s judgment, such hindrance, whether it occurs on fair or foul territory, is intentional... If the umpire declares the hindrance intentional, the following penalty shall

apply: With less than two out, the umpire shall declare both the runner and batter out. With two out, the umpire shall declare the batter out.

NFHS rule 8-2-8 says in part, "A runner need not vacate his base to permit a fielder to catch a fly ball in the infield, but he may not interfere."  Then it comes down to what is considered interference.  I talked to a High School / College ump at work about this specific situation above, and his take was that it comes down to judgement as to whether there was intentional interference, but assuming there wasn't, then the ball is dead, runner is not out.  Here's my question.  Assuming the batter gets to first, before the possibility of a play (ball is still in the air) I would think the hit is good.  If the runner does not get to first before the ball is declaired dead, then what?

The infield fly rule - slightly different situation but similar, the runner isn't called out but the batter is (he was anyway - infield fly rule).

The FED rule and the OBR rule (and for that matter the NCAA rule) on this play are the same (at least for all practical purposes).

There's a difference between interfering with the fielder and being hit by the ball.  The runner is protected from interfereing with the fielder while the runner is on the base (unless it's intentional) but not protected from being hit by the ball.

And, it doesn't matter whether the runner was hit before or after the batter reached first.  the ball is dead and the batter will be awarded first and any other runners will advance if forced (so if it was R1 and R3 and R3 got hit by the ball R1 would be forced to second).