Bases are loaded with two outs; the batter hits a ground ball which hits the runner on his way to 2B for out#3.
My understanding is that it's the scorekeeper's judgment call as to whether to credit the batter with a hit. Is my understanding correct? If not what is the rule?
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one umpire's answer: I'm not a scorekeeper, who cares, there's 3 outs... As a parent perhaps a different answer ;-)
FED: 9-3-2 (b)
9-3-2 states: "A base hit is credited to the batter when he advances to first base safely:"
(b) states: "without liability of being put out because: a runner is declared out for being hit by the batted ball (8-4-2k), ...
In English please, rules often need interpretation. If the runner avoided being hit, then someone might judge:
It would have been an obvious hit, or It would have been a routine 3rd out. My guess is that umpires make the out call (only) and scorekeepers decide on hit or not. Am I correct, or is your response "your not a scorekeeper"
My question is simple. Can it sometimes be a hit?
Nearest fielder to hit base runner is given the putout. Batter is scored as fielders choice. Can't think of any situations where you credit a batter with a hit without safely attaining first base.
Rules in English?! hahaha ... hope you aren't a coach that yells at an umpire for not knowing the rules ;-) - so many are written the same way with variances in interpretation and the need to read between the lines or read some other rule in order to get the bigger picture. But this isn't an umpire question - this is an official scorer type question - hence my caveat.
From how I read it, a hit is credited to the batter, but my first instinct was the same as Northland gotta be a fielder's choice.
Think of it this way - does the batter "deserve" to be credited with a Hit or FC for his teammates inability to get out of the way? It has nothing to do with the fielder's decision to make a play at a different base for the last force out or a fielder's inability to cleanly field the ball (e.g. error). If there was less than 2 outs, then the batter would be "awarded" 1st base (8-1-2b) with the dead ball (5-1-1f) from the hit runner killing the play and returning other possible runners R2 and/or R3 to their base. On the play the batter-runner doesn't disappear, he wasn't put out at 1B, but someone else caused the out. There's nothing I read in that particular rule which allows a scorekeeper to decide hit or fc - it says hit to me. But I'm not a scorekeeper.
My playing days were over 50 years ago; coaching...over 40 years ago. My reason for asking the question pertains to a trick question I like to stump friends with, i.e., "What is the maximum number of hits a team can have in their half-inning without scoring a run?" Most answer 5. My answer was 6 when you consider our discussion. Thanks.
