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Can any of you please explain the rule about throwing to an unoccupied base?  For example, if the pitcher tries to pick of a runner at second, does F4 have to be at the bag? OR what about the situation where there are runners at first and third, and the catcher throws to F6, who has edged up to the infield grass?  I am a little confused by this rule.

 

Thanks!

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Originally Posted by gcimatt:

Can any of you please explain the rule about throwing to an unoccupied base?  For example, if the pitcher tries to pick of a runner at second, does F4 have to be at the bag? OR what about the situation where there are runners at first and third, and the catcher throws to F6, who has edged up to the infield grass?  I am a little confused by this rule.

 

Thanks!

 

Prepare to be more confused because of the new balk rule this year.

 

In OBR and NCAA, there must be an attempted play at the base to throw to an unoccupied base.

In FED, a pitcher can throw to a base on steal attempts or to drive a runner back.

In OBR and sets that use the new balk rule, at first or third, the throw must go directly to the base or to a fielder close enough to the runner to make a play.

In FED and NCAA, the above description only applies to first.

In all sets, a throw to second can be to the base or any fielder, as long as the throw is more towards second than both third and first.

Originally Posted by dash_riprock:
Originally Posted by gcimatt:

OR what about the situation where there are runners at first and third, and the catcher throws to F6, who has edged up to the infield grass?  I am a little confused by this rule.

 

Thanks!

The rule only applies to a pitcher who is in contact with the rubber.  The catcher can throw anywhere anytime.

Good catch.

Dash - thanks for that clarification! I actually had a league umpire tell me that the catcher throwing to the SS in the R1 stealing 2B, with a runner also on 3B fit the elements of throwing to an unoccupied base.  I appreciate you gentlemen and your insights!  You are helping me to learn a game that I love, much better.

 

Matt

Originally Posted by gcimatt:

Dash - thanks for that clarification! I actually had a league umpire tell me that the catcher throwing to the SS in the R1 stealing 2B, with a runner also on 3B fit the elements of throwing to an unoccupied base.  I appreciate you gentlemen and your insights!  You are helping me to learn a game that I love, much better.

 

Matt

Throwing to bases is covered under the pitching rules and the only restrictions are on pitchers. Send your league umpire to this site.

Originally Posted by dash_riprock:
Originally Posted by gcimatt:

OR what about the situation where there are runners at first and third, and the catcher throws to F6, who has edged up to the infield grass?  I am a little confused by this rule.

 

Thanks!

The rule only applies to apitcher who is in contact with the rubber.  The catcher can throw anywhere anytime.

This is important as well.  Once a pitcher steps off the rubber, he becomes a fielder and can throw where ever he wants. 

Originally Posted by gcimatt:

Dash - thanks for that clarification! I actually had a league umpire tell me that the catcher throwing to the SS in the R1 stealing 2B, with a runner also on 3B fit the elements of throwing to an unoccupied base.  I appreciate you gentlemen and your insights!  You are helping me to learn a game that I love, much better.

 

Matt

and this reponse makes it all worth it....

We had a similar play this week where a runner on 2nd broke to 3rd and the pitcher threw directly to 3rd base from the rubber.  I asked the umpires about it after the game...I believed (apparently erroneously) that the pitcher had to step off the rubber to throw to an unoccupied base even if making a play.  Another question then, is assume a LH pitcher and a runner on 1B...if the pitchers front foot crosses behind the rubber and the runner breaks for 2B, can the pitcher continue to turn and throw to 2B to make a play on the runner?  Or is there additional verbiage in the rules that prohibits this even though he'd be making a play? 

Originally Posted by Mike017:

We had a similar play this week where a runner on 2nd broke to 3rd and the pitcher threw directly to 3rd base from the rubber.  I asked the umpires about it after the game...I believed (apparently erroneously) that the pitcher had to step off the rubber to throw to an unoccupied base even if making a play.  Another question then, is assume a LH pitcher and a runner on 1B...if the pitchers front foot crosses behind the rubber and the runner breaks for 2B, can the pitcher continue to turn and throw to 2B to make a play on the runner?  Or is there additional verbiage in the rules that prohibits this even though he'd be making a play? 

Yes, he can, as long as he did not make a motion normally associated with his pitch.

If a LH pitcher's foot crosses the rubber completely he can only go to second or the plate. In Fed, if the runner breaks the pitcher can go to second even if the runner goes back. In pro, the same can happen, the exception is the runner has to make and actual attempt and return, or go ahead and try to advance. Most umpires use halfway as an actual attempt. 

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