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The other night my team was playing a game. We had 1st and 3rd with 2 out in the last inning of a tie game, so we ran what we call a "force balk" play to try and get the run in from third by either a balk or rundown situation.

For those not completely familiar with the play. The runner from first takes off for second while the pitcher is halfway to coming to the set position from the stretch (reading signs) position. The purpose is to induce the pitcher to freak out and balk and become overwhelmed in a pressure situation when everyone is yelling step off etc.. and if he doesn't have him throw the ball and get the R1 in a rundwon hopefully allowing R3 to score.

Anyway, I was on first and had broken at the corect time as he was midway to the set. No one yelled step off for a little bit and the pitcher was standing there and I could see him thinking what to do. Eventually as I just reached second he wheeled as if picking off to 2nd with a daylight play and did not throw the ball but simply stood there with ball in hand in throwing position.

Initially the umpire called a balk but then took it back. he was confused as well and could not explain why he did this. Regardless of that was this actually a balk?? I looked in the MLB rule 8.01 (b) and 8.05 (which is what we play, AL rules) and I could not find a clear interpretation of this particular situation.

please help figure this out since it could have won us the game 3-2 but we ended up at a 2-2 tie because of time limit.

Thank you

Turn two
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I understand what you were trying to do offensively. No problem there.

Defensively, it appears that you are saying that the pitcher stopped or hesitated half way while going through his stretch on the way to the full set position.
If this stop or hesitation was clearly separate from his turn to second base I have a balk. If, however, he does not complete his stretch because he immediately turned toward second base his move would be legal...and he can feint to second; there isn't any requirement to throw the ball.
quote:
Originally posted by Midlo Dad:
He can fake a throw to 2nd if 2nd is occupied, but a fake to an unoccupied base is a balk, isn't it?


No it's not. FED6.2.4b says:

"If there is a runner, . . . the following act by a pitcher while he is touching the pither's plate is a balk: . . . failing to step with the non-pivot foot directly toward a base (occupied of unoccupied) when throwing or feinting there in an attempt to put out, or drive back a runner, or throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner. [emphasis mine]

The point here is that as long as there is some chance that his actions are meant to try to prevent a moving runner from advancing he can throw ahead of him (as long as he steps toward the base he is throwing/feinting to) regardless of whether he has properly disengaged the pitcher's plate or not.

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